Why did the British and Dutch only used Black African as slaves during their colonizations of the world?

In addition to the comments already made, they also used white people in indentured servitude and through the penal system (convict labor). Much of the slavery of Africans was based on colonization of Africa, so it was an availability issue (they could only enslave the populations they had easy access to and control of), and really was based on existing slave trading WITHIN Africa (Africans used to enslave each other and just saw the whites as a new market to sell the slaves they captured inland). Interestingly, slavery was banned by the British (who very rarely used slaves on British soil in any case) much earlier than it was banned by the Americans after they had gained independence. Go figure.

Because the black Africans were more than willing to capture and sell their brother Africans, so why not buy them cheap? Plus, everyone knows that black people are stronger and smarter and make better workers.

There were other races who were in slavery but the Africans were the most plentiful and easiest to capture.

Availability?

They used a lot of Asians as well. Maybe it wasn't called slavery but in terms of the model, it was just the same...

IIRC from history classes many years ago, the spanish usually enslaved the local residents. in mexico, they enslaved the aztecs, in peru, they enslaved the incas, in USA they enslaved the local indians......................

Because Mel gibson hates the jews duh