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Was Jesus disrespectul to Mary his Mother for saying " What have I to do with you, woman? ( John 2:1-4) ?
18 Answers
- Anonymous1 decade agoFavorite Answer
no. it's actually him being respectful
Source(s): catholic - ?Lv 45 years ago
Mary wasn't teaching, she was instructing the servants at the wedding because she was there to help with the preparations of the wedding feast. But yes, God's people should obey the teachings of Christ - both in OT (since He quoted it so many times) and NT.
- ?Lv 71 decade ago
No, because as his mother she also knew he was the Messiah and in her asking a question to him about the wine at the wedding they were attending tried to get JESUS to act out of her time and not GOD'S. Interesting that he called his Mother, woman though because the Catholic church keeps putting her up as MOTHER of GOD when it's only the Earthly mother of GOD-Man. It's interesting to find when JESUS actually stopped referring to Mary as Mother and just Woman.
It is no where mentioned in the bible that he ever called her mother!! Even at 13 years old he referred to her as woman when they found him praying at the Temple in Jerusalem!
- ShamgaurLv 61 decade ago
Actually, if you don't understand the cultural context behind that statement I could see how you would look at it that way. It's true meaning would be like me asking someone "What do I have in common with you?" Jesus was about God's business, Mary was coming to Him on behalf of wedding guests who wanted more wine. Plus, the word "woman" in that cultural context is actually like saying "mam" in our culture. It's respectful way to address an elderly woman. Mary then tells the servants to do what He tells them. She removes herself from the situation and tells them that Jesus is the one with authority. This passage is a great testament of the coming new covenant and the fullness of joy (wine is a symbol of Joy) that we can all partake in when we submit to Jesus' Lordship.
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- MidgeLv 71 decade ago
No, he was actually calling attention to the fact that she is the "woman" talked about in Genesis. The one whose seed would crush the head of Satan. It is interesting from looking at her with this in mind and remembering what was also said about her---"I will put enmity between you and the woman"---talking to Satan about The Blessed Virgin Mary---now all the pseudo Church goers speak of her like she is trash---I certainly would call that enmity
- Anonymous1 decade ago
I found this such an interesting question. Here is a site that might help in the understanding of what happened.
http://www.bible.org/page.php?page_id=2352
Jesus placed himself away from under his mother's care and concern once he found himself an adult and under only the word of God, His Father. She no longer could have been any different than anyone else in Jesus's life. When you think of God who thinks of all of us as the same, it makes sense. Mary did not have any higher place in Jesus's life than anyone else.
- SentinelLv 71 decade ago
Firstly from what I have learned over the years from studing Judaism it is a fact that calling His Mother `Woman` was actually a term of honor by Jesus, which Jewish scholars say means `Daughter of Abraham`
- AcornLv 71 decade ago
No. You're confusing an English euphemism with a translation of ancient Aramaic.
And the line is generally translated "What does this have to do with me, woman? Don't you know that my time is not yet come?"
First you have to remember that Jesus didn't speak English.
Second you have to remember that 2 different languages, like English and Aramaic, don't line up word for word, gloss for gloss, concept for concept.
In English, at least in the US, for a son to call his mother "woman" in that context would be disrespectful and rude.
But in Aramaic, in Jesus's time and culture, that wasn't rude. Even though that specific Aramaic word meant "woman," what Jesus meant when He said is was more like "madam" or "lady." It was term of familial respect.
So Jesus's answer meant something like "Mother, this isn't for me do deal with right now because the time is not right for miracles."
Notice, too, that even though He said this, He went ahead and performed the miracle of turning the water into wine.
- LottaLouLv 71 decade ago
No.
Jesus is the 'Seed of the Woman' prophecy fulfilled. Genesis3:15. So it isn't disrespectful to call ones mother woman.
John2:1-4 Jesus said, "Woman, what have I to do with thee? Mine hour is not yet to come."
What about when Jesus said in Matthew15:28. When the woman of Canaan came to him asking Jesus for her daughters healing... Jesus said, "It is not meet to take the children's bread & to cast it to dogs?" (Calling her a dog.) The woman answered, "Truth, Lord: yet the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their master's table. Jesus answered her, "O Woman, great is thy faith: be it unto thee even as thou wilt." (Calling her a Woman of great faith.) And her daughter was healed.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
the wine signifies His blood. and they were asking for wine. that is why He said my hour is not yet come.
the vessels are a figure of all men, the water represented the life that did not satisfy. the water turned to wine represents the salvation by the blood that satisfies.
He wasn't being disrespectful to His mother. in the very next verse His mother turns to the apostles and tells them to utterly respect and obey her Son.
- Florence BLv 51 decade ago
I would say, yes he was.
He was also disrespectful when he left mummy and daddy and they spent all the time searching for him. Teenaged Jesus didn't even apologize, he just said, 'He had to be in his Father's House'.
Young Jesus was a man, remember and he probably had his naughty moments.