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Jacksmum asked in Arts & HumanitiesPhilosophy · 1 decade ago

what on earth does this mean?

Invoking its social function can explain why we find a certain functional trait or institution only if we can identify a mechanism whereby the playing of the function connects with the explanandum.

please help me :(

Update:

i know it makes like zero sense, it is an abstract from a paper written by Phillip Pettit...

any actually useful answers?

Update 2:

Grandpa... are you actually being serious here?

10 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    ? We can only know why we do something by knowing what role it plays in society, but then only if we know HOW (mechanism) it does so?

    Yes, this guy can't write a clear English sentence. Typical of sociologists.

  • 1 decade ago

    Grinnnnn...... You're kidding, right?

    Okay, break it down:

    "Invoking it's social function": That means opening a can of beer.

    "Why we find a certain functional trait or institution": drunkenness from opening too many cans of beer.

    "If we can identify a mechanism": That means if you get caught by your mother.

    "The playing of the function connects with the explanandum": That of course means that you loose the keys to the family sled, you will cut the lawn 4 times with NO PAY and you will have to babysit your little sister on Saturdays in June.

    In short, this all means that if you are popping open a cold one, don't get pissed up and let your mom catch you. You do and you'll pay BIG TIME.

    Grandpa

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    If we do not know a "certain functional trait or institution [except by] identify[ing] a mechanism," then it stands to reason we cannot "invoke its social function" first. He says it himself--"...we find [it] ONLY if we identify a mechanism."

    The "explanandum" is neither the "invoking" of the "function," nor can it by my argument be the "trait or institution."

    Therefore, it is a fallacy. Choose your own--it fits several:

    http://www.don-lindsay-archive.org/skeptic/argumen...

    My personal choice is that it is "invalid" by this explanation:

    "A deductive argument is said to be valid if and only if it takes a form that makes it impossible for the premises to be true and the conclusion nevertheless to be false. Otherwise, a deductive argument is said to be invalid.

    A deductive argument is sound if and only if it is both valid, and all of its premises are actually true. Otherwise, a deductive argument is unsound."

    http://www.iep.utm.edu/v/val-snd.htm

    It never comes close to having "soundness."

  • 1 decade ago

    wow....ummm...social function can explain why some things or places can identify a things that can explain the "explanandum" whatever that means? ya other than that i have no idea! ")

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    It's like Harley Davidson ownership or foorball (soccer, the proper kind). "For those who understand no explanantion is necessary, for those who do not understand no explanation is possible".

  • TNnana
    Lv 4
    1 decade ago

    Sorry, could you repeat the question in layman's terms or maybe just slower?

  • 1 decade ago

    It says "plain talk is best"

    Yip !

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    yes

  • step
    Lv 5
    1 decade ago

    um... ian botham?

  • 1 decade ago

    What?

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