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What is the status of "onedownmanship"?

Can this word, which is obviously taken from the more common "oneupmanship", really be considered a word?

In fact in the article I read here: ( http://news.yahoo.com/s/politico/20080809/pl_polit... ) the example used really tends to lend itself more so to the word "oneupmanship" rather than making a statement which is "lesser" or "underneath" the previous statement, so to speak. In fact in almost every example I can think of even if latter's statement is less grandiose or more subtle, the person making the latter statement would probably be trying to ridicule the person making the former (and thus be trying to "one up" him) by either downplaying his argument or proposing a more serious matter at hand.

I guess what I'm trying to say is, since the word "onedownmanship" obviously fails to stand on its own, and is essentially just another way of saying "oneupmanship" should it be used?

Update:

Helmuth A. - But does the word actually say anything? I'm not against the addition of words to our vocabulary, but I'm against using two words where one will do, especially if they are essentially the exact same word. What, praytell, does the OED define "one-downmanship" as, compared to its definition of "one-upmanship" (which I assume would be hyphenated as well)?

4 Answers

Relevance
  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    Only if it is accepted by the word committee.

  • CC
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    I agree with your premise. It should not be used. It is a form of ridicule for the oneupmanship.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    No it should not be used.

  • 1 decade ago

    Yeah, maybe...

    Source(s): New Shorter OED vol. 2
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