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"Why did freedom for women expand at some times and places in the ancient world but..."?
"Why did freedom for women expand at some times and places in the ancient world but contract at other times and places?"
This is one of the questions I have on the take home essay portion of my Western Civ exam, and am having trouble coming up with a concise reason.
I already have the sources he wants us to use (since we only have one evening to do it, it is just from our texts), and I'm not really asking for help writing the essay. I can cover that. I just need some help getting started with a thesis statement.
See, that's what I would have said also, Murph, except it was an equal society during much of the Paleolithic era, and all seemed to go downhill for centuries after the Neolithic revolution. After that, it is very much a fluctuation.
Hence my trouble with coming up with a good thesis. =)
Wow, so getting help on homework is no longer a legit use of Y!A? What makes rants and polls so much more noble?
I'm not asking anyone to do my work, I'm asking for help.
6 Answers
- 1 decade agoFavorite Answer
You should look into the end times of the Greek, Roman and Islamic empires and now the end of American Capitalism.
Sexual liberation and women's liberation came at the peaks before the falls for some reason.
For instance, a typical Muslim duet from the Andalusian times would have the female as the protagonist and the male calling to her submissively in the background. Quite hedonistic times from what I've been told.
Perhaps life has to become less of a struggle before liberation can happen, for instance...
Women in the West could not be released from the domestic role until modern conveniences progressed enough to allow a tax payer to maintain themselves with ease without a back up person in a supporting role. The fact that work became less physical meant that women could join the tax system too, and so it was. In this case technological advancements freed women.
Another area to look at might be the end of Hitler's campaign, his staff became quite liberated sexually after they realised the war was lost.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
I think it has to do with the quality or ease of life.
Patriarchy is a system that enhances competitive ability of a group. It requires sacrifices from both sexes and places them in the necessary roles that they are suited for. When a group is struggling to survive, they do not have the luxury of deciding how they want to behave.
Perhaps as populations grew larger than small bands, different groups came into conflict more often with each other over limited resources. Life became more difficult and personal freedoms became more of a luxury.
- FexLv 61 decade ago
One of the best questions I have ever seen in GWS. Don't mind people with a chip on their shoulder. It's there permanently and cannot even be surgically removed. I don't know how to answer it, but I star in the hopes that some of my contacts will be able to. Also, it deserves about 10 stars.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
It depends on the society , throughout the past and even today there were many different views. Some where woman were truly oppressed, some where woman were treated equal, there were even some where woman oppressed men.
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- 1 decade ago
"If only they had feminists in the ancient world, all would be equal"
- Anonymous1 decade ago
when civilzation declines so does the treatment of women?