Why does the Bible refer to Jesus as "The Word"?

The answer to this question is found by first understanding the reason why John wrote his gospel. We find his purpose clearly stated in John 20:30-31. “Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.” Once we understand that John’s purpose was to introduce the readers of his gospel to Jesus Christ, establishing Who Jesus is (God in the flesh) and what He did, all with the sole aim of leading them to embrace the saving work of Christ in faith, we will be better able to understand why John introduces Jesus as “The Word” in John 1:1.

By starting out his gospel stating, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God,” John is introducing Jesus with a word or a term that both his Jewish and Gentile readers would have been familiar with. The Greek word translated “Word” in this passage is Logos, and it was common in both Greek philosophy and Jewish thought of that day. For example, in the Old Testament the “word” of God is often personified as an instrument for the execution of God’s will (Psalm 33:6; 107:20; 119:89; 147:15-18). So, for his Jewish readers, by introducing Jesus as the “Word,” John is in a sense pointing them back to the Old Testament where the Logos or “Word” of God is associated with the personification of God’s revelation. And in Greek philosophy, the term Logos was used to describe the intermediate agency by which God created material things and communicated with them. In the Greek worldview, the Logos was thought of as a bridge between the transcendent God and the material universe. Therefore, for his Greek readers the use of the term Logos would have likely brought forth the idea of a mediating principle between God and the world.

So, essentially, what John is doing by introducing Jesus as the Logos is drawing upon a familiar word and concept that both Jews and Gentiles of his day would have been familiar with and using that as the starting point from which He introduces them to Jesus Christ. But John goes beyond the familiar concept of Logos that his Jewish and Gentile readers would have had and presents Jesus Christ not as a mere mediating principle like the Greeks perceived, but as a personal being, fully divine, yet fully human. Also, Christ was not simply a personification of God’s revelation as the Jews thought, but was indeed God’s perfect revelation of Himself in the flesh, so much so that John would record Jesus’ own words to Philip: "Jesus said unto Him, 'Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how do you say, "Show us the Father"?'" (John 14:9). By using the term Logos or “Word” in John 1:1, John is amplifying and applying a concept that was familiar with his audience and using that to introduce his readers to the true Logos of God in Jesus Christ, the Living Word of God, fully God and yet fully man, who came to reveal God to man and redeem all who believe in Him from their sin.

It would take volumes to expound on your question.

Plain and simple - He is the Living Reality of all that is set forth in symbols of letters in the written Word of God - the Bible.

Therefore, when He came into the world, He said:

“ Sacrifice and offering You did not desire,

But a body You have prepared for Me.

In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin

You had no pleasure.

Then I said, ‘Behold, I have come—

In the volume of the book it is written of Me—

To do Your will, O God.’”

Hebrews 10:5-7 NKJV (quoting from the Septuagint Version)

"For the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.”

Revelation 19:10

Translator's choice for the Greek "Logos" -- the word is ancient, even at the time John wrote his Gospel. I've provided a wikipedia link for those interested.

The use in the Biblical sense originated with the second-century apologist, Justin Martyr.

The Quran refers to Jesus (PBUH) the same way too.

"Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! Allah giveth thee glad tidings of a Word from Him: his name will be Christ Jesus, the son of Mary, held in honour in this world and the Hereafter and of (the company of) those nearest to Allah." (The Quran 3:45)

The reason why Jesus (PBUH) is being refered to as this name is explained in the following Quranic verse:

"The similitude of Jesus before Allah is as that of Adam; He created him from dust, then said to him: "Be". And he was." (The Quran 3:59)

So, Jesus (PBUH) is called God's word because Allah created him and he said the word "Be" and so he was. So, he was directly created through the word "Be" without the presence of the intermediate (which is the father in the case of normal humans). But, because Jesus's miracle was being born without a father, he was blessed with the name "A word from Him"....

Peace :)

He was the revelatory thought (The Word) with God before anything existed. Made flesh at the appointed time and was the first to become God, into God's family, by a resurrection.

God's Word (Jesus Christ) did not return to him (Ascension) void but accomplished God's purpose.

Because Jesus is the word come in the flesh, He is Gods word.

Because Jesus said His words (plural) are Spirit and Life:

John 6:63 - It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life.

to show the Son of God created everything in this world spoke by God.

establishes the Deity of Jesus.

The Greek word for 'Word' is logos.........which is all-encompassing & universal...........meaning:

Jesus is Yahweh (God).......plain & simple.

John used it to satisfy both his Greek speaking Gentiles & Jewish readers.

But either way, it still reverted back to Jesus as the Creator.

I thought 'Grease' was the word!