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Before his physical birth, Jesus eternally existed as the Word?

Does Jesus existence as the Word mean he physically existed before his birth or that he was the revelatory thought of the Eternal God (Yahweh Elohim) that became flesh at God's appointed time?

John 8:32

And you shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.”

14 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    Yes, he existed, in what form is unclear, or to my understanding is unclear. John 1:1-14 or 15 does give us a little insight to this by saying that in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. And everything that was made, was made by the Word. Jesus told the Pharisees, before Abraham, I am. So I believe He moved and had thought, if that is the right way to put it, on His own, yet it was in complete agreement with God the Father and the Holy Ghost. This is a deep question.

  • 1 decade ago

    The phrase "eternal Son" does not appear in the Bible. Nor does the concept. The singular Heavenly Father (God) became manifest in the flesh as Jesus Christ. The Jesus Christ that walked on Earth had two natures: the human and the divine. Jesus Christ was the Word that became flesh in that He was the Messiah from prophecy that came to be. Jesus Christ is not a separate person than the Father. The Father (the deity of Christ) indwelt him. God does not exist as three separate persons (as the doctrine of the trinity says). He is the Father in deity, Son in humanity, and Holy Ghost in action.

    Source(s): KJV
  • 1 decade ago

    good question. it is my belief that He physically existed before his birth.

    Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

    Joh 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God.

    Joh 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

    Gen 1:26 And God said, Let US make man in our image,

  • Fuzzy
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    There seems much confusion about the spirits, and God. The fact that they are called spirits make some conclude that these do not have bodies, which in fact they do have.

    Paul taught us the truth about this. By inspiration he told us that there are heavenly bodies and earthly ones. Christ is said to have been the exact representation, spirit body speaking, of God.

    As such, in their reality, Christ existed 'physically' side by side with God from the beginning when he was created. He has always been the loved one of God, his son, even in heaven before. Still, this was confirmed and established in new ways when he sacrificed himself for us here on earth.

    He has always been the divine expression, the Logos, even to the angels. We are told that only through Jesus can one come to know God, and vice versa. This could be taken to mean that even the angels previously had to go through Jesus to get to know God. That might account for Satan not knowing that what he did could not succeed.

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  • 1 decade ago

    You know Jesus said "before Abraham was, I am"

    You also know that if Adam and Eve talked with God, they were talking with Jesus.

    Unless you don't believe that Jesus is God?

    Jesus has always been here, He is God.

    You cannot Comprehend His true form as the Father because it is larger than the entire Univers. He spans the Heavens with His hand says the psalmist. He is a massive God.

    What's the best way for a Massive God to reveal Himself to us but to get on our level, this includes the Angels. Only Jesus has seen the Father, and those to whom He reveals.

    STILL....

    ONE GOD.

  • Ray G
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    There are five places in the Old Testament which could be thought of as possible Christophanies, though the Bible does not come out and say it.

    1. Since Christ is the physical form of God, it could have been Him appearing to Adam and Eve in the Garden.

    2. It is thought that Christ was the "Angel of the LORD" who wrestled with Jacob.

    3. I was always taught that Christ was the fourth man in the fire in the furnace story.

    4. Christ may also have been Melchizedek, the High Priest of Salem, who Abraham paid tribute to, and who Paul (I think) compared Christ to in the New Testament.

    5. Abraham was also once visited by three men walking up out of the desert and only one of them spoke to him. He later realized that they represented God and so they could have been the Father, Son and Holy Ghost.

  • 1 decade ago

    That the Son was not preexistent is evidenced by the fact that Paul said, "But when the fullness of time came, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law…" (Galatians 4:4). The Son came at a certain point in time, from a woman. The fact that Paul said the Son was sent does not imply that the Son preexisted the incarnation any more than that John the Baptist preexisted his physical birth, who is also said to have been sent by God (John 1:6). The sending of the Son was not the sending of a preexistent person of the Godhead, but rather YHWH making Himself known in the face of Jesus Christ.

    The Son was not eternally generated from the Father. Many have claimed that the Son was eternally begotten by God based off of Psalm 2:7 which says, "You are my Son, today I have begotten you." Charles Ryrie had this to say about the doctrine of eternal generation, which is connected with the idea of a preexistent son: "I agree with Buswell (A Systematic Theology of the Christian Religion, pp. 105-12) that generation is not an exegetically based doctrine. … The phrase ‘eternal generation’ is simply an attempt to describe the Father-Son relationship of the Trinity and, by using the word ‘eternal,’ protect it from any idea of inequality or temporality." Though Ryrie most definitely believes the Son to be eternal, even he confesses that the doctrine of eternal generation is not found in Scripture. For the illegitimate use of Psalm 2:7, which speaks prophetically of the Son, Ryrie said, "Least of all should generation be based on Psalm 2:7." The Psalm is a coronation psalm, referring to the day a king is coronated, not the day of birth or time of origin. It is used of Jesus’ origin in Hebrews 1:5, as contrasted with the angels. Whereas they were created, the Son was begotten by God. This is referring to the incarnation as the context shows (vs. 4, 6). Psalm 2:7 is also used of Jesus’ ascension in Acts 13:33, demonstrating that the verse is not strictly speaking of the conception of Jesus by God.

    The only way in which the Son of God preexisted the incarnation was as the logos. In John 1:1 the logos is identified as being God Himself, but He is also said to be with God. It was the logos who was made flesh (John 1:14).

    The logos is the self-expression, word, or thought (reason) of God. As David Bernard has said:

    The Logos is God's self expression, "God's means of self disclosure," or "God uttering Himself." Before the Incarnation, the Logos was the unexpressed thought or plan in the mind of God, which had a reality no human thought can have because of God's perfect foreknowledge, and in the case of the Incarnation, God's predestination. In the beginning, the Logos was with God, not as a separate person but as God Himself - pertaining to and belonging to God much like a man and his word. In the fulness of time God…expressed Himself in flesh.

    According to Philippians 2:6, Jesus was in "the form of God" before the incarnation. "Who being in the form of God" is translated from hos en morphe theou huparchon. Huparchon, translated as "being" is from two Greek words, hupo, "under," and arche, "a beginning." It involves existence both before and after conditions mentioned in connection with it. In this case it is speaking of the preexistence of the "form of God." Morphe, referring to the preexistent "form" of God speaks of "that external form that represents what is intrinsic and essential. It indicates not merely what may be perceived by others, but what is objectively there." The emphasis is primarily upon the essence behind the form, but recognizes the visible form also.. Theou is in the genitive case, indicating possession. This form was God’s form. The word is also anarthrous, thus emphasizing God's person. In this context, then, Paul was pointing out that this existing visible form of God was His essential deity.

    What exactly this form that God possessed was, we are not told. Nevertheless, it was existing in eternity probably until the incarnation, or possibly the ascension, at which time Jesus' body would have replaced the need for the visible form of God. From John we might gather that this form of God was the logos that was with God.

    This form was at least visible to the heavenly host, for they presented themselves before God in some manner (I Kings 22:19; Job 1:6). Since God is omnipresent, there could not be any specific location at which to gather, unless, that is, God appeared in some type of visible, albeit spirit form. So the logos was the visible expression of God’s invisible essence. "The Word was not merely an impersonal thought existing in the mind of God but was, in reality, the Eternal Spirit Himself clothed upon by a visible and personal form..."

    Source(s): A=Apostolic B=Believer I=In O=One G=God JESUS
  • 1 decade ago

    Jesus has always existed, but had no role until two thousand years ago. He was always at the right had of God.

  • 1 decade ago

    yes, Jesus is the Alpha and Omega--beginning and the end period.

    Source(s): me, your friendly Pentecostal
  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    I see no evidence that He didn't physically exist in some form.

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