Does JESUS not clearly define what the definition of marriage is in these verses?

It sounds like it to me, but this era's society goes by human law, which is not based on God's law.

No, it is not clear at all unless you put it in context. At the time there was a debate about what some uncleanness in Deut. 24:1-4 meant one group said a man could divorce his wife for anything he did not like about her. The other group held that the only time a man could choose to divorce his wife is if he found out that she was not a virgin when he married her. In this light it is clear that Jesus taught that fraud was grounds for divorce but that you was hard hearted to do it.

There is no exception for a spouse in first Corinthians 5 you are commanded to drive out the wicked from among you, drive out and divorce come from the same root word and carry the same meaning.

You are using the wrong verse, the Sura mentioned marriage with non Muslims is Al-Maeda no 5 verse 5 state that Muslim men are allowed to marry Christian and Jew women. But it did not say Muslim women can do the same. In that case you can't work your brain and try to Create something which Allah did not allow. How would the Muslim woman inherit her non Muslim husband or any of her non Muslim children when they die? how could she cook pork for her husband and serve wine for him? How could she ask for divorce if Christianity doesn't allow that? better in that case she convert to her husbands religion while this is against the main essence of Islam

Well, I think that just means christians can't get divorced (with one exception), or they're commuting adultery.

But this ignores several facts:

Christians get divorced at the same rate as non-christians.

If fornication is the the only reason christians can get divorced, then "hat God has yoked together let no man put apart." is really, really, really silly. God is just... weak.

Doesn't sound like an all-knowing god wrote this, sounds like someone SAYING god said it.

Yeah ok...so where is Jesus these days?

Tell him to stop by my house tomorrow and I will discuss it with him.

Oh but first maybe I should check with Muhammid and Allah to make sure they both agree with Jesus.

Look...Jesus is dead. MORE people alive today who could care less what a dead man who might have lived 2000 years ago has to say about anything.

Gay Marriage is ACCEPTABLE to a MAJORITY of Americans...

Gays are now openly serving in the Military and will do so now and forever more.

It may take awhile but in the end christians social agenda ALWAYS LOSES!!!

You have lost this fight...oh the HATE still burns in you and you will continue try to find ways to turn back the clock..

Next up from the christian crazies upset because nobody listens to Jesus anymore?

Bombs and snipers at gay weddings!!!

I'm divorced. I'm not saying we may divorce because our spouse is abusive but I just felt that my wife should have sex with me and decided that if she wasn't having sex with me it was because she doesn't like me.

But I was in the church and i did talk to my deacon. His exact words were

"You may divorce her. If she's not getting sex from you then she must be getting it from somewhere."

NOW I think about that and it makes me wonder what Jesus meant when He said, "If you divorce your wife you are causing her to commit adultery!" Doesn't that presuppose that she has become sexually active again after the divorce?

So do I conclude that people have to have sex whether they are married to any particular person? Or is something else implied like maybe "She's going to have sex but it may not be with her husband and if it isn't you are the reason she is committing adultery?" or am I over thinking what Jesus meant?

The bible doesn't prove anything other than that it is the bible.

Emotional dependency on it notwithstanding. Let's be rational.

Marriage began as a way of men owning women as property.

And with a divorce rate over 50% I will never take the hypocrisy and cowardice that is the cult of christianity seriously ever again!

If he did, why are fundamentalist churches so accepting of divorce and remarriage?

When and why did the rules change? Righteous, Godly men of the Old Testament had multiple wives and slept with their servants.

It's only a definition of marriage if it's taken out of the context of answering a question about divorce.

Anyone can define marriage and since the beginning of time has been a religious act between a man and woman. By rejecting religion means rejecting marriage. Simple as that.

Jesus does clearly define marriage in this text. He says male and female, and says they will leave their parents to be united with each other as one flesh.

It would be better that, if you didn't believe this was clearly defined, to state why you think that way. The question is vague.