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The US First Amendment?

Is Congress and the United States government presumptuous to assume that foreign nationals who are non-US citizens supposedly owe allegiance to the United States?

Where, in the Constitution, does it say that foreign nationals supposedly owe allegiance to another sovereign entity, which in this case is the United States?

Does Congress and the United States government realize that America has no sovereign presence or rights in the EU, Russia, and China; and it would not be easy to win a nuclear exchange with any sovereign power which has nuclear submarines?

Does the Pentagon, CIA, and the United States government realize that a relatively small country such as France and Great Britain has more than enough nuclear weapons to deter a much bigger and stronger military power such as Russia, China, and the United States, and America could not easily win a nuclear exchange without incurring heavy loss in terms of military, industrial, and civilian casualties? Needless to say, are they aware that America could not easily win a nuclear exchange against China without incurring even greater collateral damage in terms of military, industrial, and civilian casualties?

Given that this is the case, is Congress and the United States government presumptuous to assume that foreign nationals who are non-US citizens supposedly owe allegiance to their god-forsaken country, whereas, they could just as easily kill US troops and civilians in the event of a major military conflict with Russia, China, and N. Korea?

Is President Obama, Bush, and Clinton presumptuous to assume that out of all the 62.262 million total population in the UK, that most of them would supposedly want to live in the United States; and are they naive to assume that the political ideologies of non-White people in Great Britain is any different from the White majority, which would make them more susceptible to US propaganda? What percentage of the total population in Britain do they seriously think would want to live in the United States? What could the United States possibly offer to people in Great Britain that they don't already have here in this country? Why should British people (and Europeans, generally) owe allegiance to the United States, which is a foreign sovereign power, which will always be foreign in the eyes of the British people?

By definition, the First Amendment implies that foreign nationals who are non-US citizens have a right NEVER to set foot on American soil, which is a non-negotiable right; but does Obama, Bush, and Clinton realize that this is a valid, sound, and correct interpretation of the Constitution?

By definition, the First Amendment implies that foreign nationals who are non-US citizens have a RIGHT to fight for whichever country they happen to choose in the event of a major war with the United States, and they have a right to kill US troops and civilians, which is a non-negotiable right; but is the President aware that this is a TRUE interpretation of the Constitution?

Moreover, is the President aware that the United States is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which, by definition, implies that no alien would ever be bound by any lawful duty of allegiance to the United States; and is he aware that the Universal Right of Self Determination implies that any alien who is a non-US citizen has a RIGHT to declare his allegiance to a hostile sovereign power in the event of a major military conflict with the United States e.g. Iran, China, N. Korea, and the Russian Federation?

Is the President aware that the recent changes to the US Immigration and Naturalization Act 1965 is futile and meaningless to foreign nationals who do not wish to apply for a Waiver of Ineligibility, nor do they wish to ever live in the United States? Is the President presumptuous to assume that foreign nationals with criminal records would supposedly stoop to ask for clemency from a country to whom they have no allegiance? Is the President presumptuous to assume that aliens who are non-US citizens would supposedly pay US attorneys an exorbitant fee of $6,000 to $10,000 to obtain a Green Card which they do not wish to have, and to live in a country which they dislike?

Based on the law of probability, what are the chances of success for Congress, CIA, and the Government to entice reluctant foreigners who have no wish whatsoever to apply for a visa to live in the United States?

Update:

@A Voice of Reason. I think you've missed my point, which should be pretty obvious to most people. The vast majority of people in France have a rich history and tradition, and they do NOT wish to speak English, nor do they wish to be American. By the same score, British people have a rich history and tradition, and the fact this is an English-speaking country doesn't mean that they want to be American. But the British and French aren't alone, because the same rule applies to ANY country in the world, which is based on the UNIVERSAL RIGHT OF SELF DETERMINATION, which is the sacred inalienable right of ALL people around the world.

The fact that America could destroy the rest of the world with it's nuclear arsenal, and wipe the floor with any country militarily is entirely IRRELEVANT, because the British and French have enough submarine launched ballistic missiles to make America think twice before it pre-empts any country which has a nuclear deterrent; and it makes no

Update 2:

and it makes no sense to talk about America's missile defence shield, which is only effective against land-based ballistic missiles -- any country which has submarine launched nuclear missiles could, quite easily, creep well within range of US cities, because submarines cannot be detected by America's early warning radar system, and America's missile defence shield would simply make submarine launched ballistic missiles exploded over US civilian populations, which would cause widespread radioactive contamination.

Needless to say, the close and important bilateral ties between the United States, Britain, and France means that the US government would NEVER declare war on those countries simply on account of individuals in Britain or France who do not wish to comply with the wishes of the US government. Citizens of Great Britain and France have a right to be British or French, which means that they have a RIGHT to resist any attempts to Americanize them. De facto, the Ci

Update 3:

De facto, the Citizens of any European country have a RIGHT to be who they are, which means that they have a RIGHT not to be American.

Since the United States government would never go to war against Britain or France on account of certain individuals within those countries, the most powerful government on earth is POWERLESS to make those individuals comply with it's wishes.

Last but not least, the US government is making a big mistake by treating Blacks, Arabs, Asians, and Chinese in Britain or France as if they are from a developing country; and the underlying assumption here is that anybody who is non-White is somehow "starving, impoverished, and desperate" to have a US visa, which is BOLLOCKS.

5 Answers

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  • JOHN G
    Lv 7
    9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Yes, I am in the UK and I agree, I have no wish to go to the US, I am retired and couldn't afford to live in another country because of all the medication I need and I am sure no other country would want me

  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    pretty hysterical question, but from what I THINK you're asking you have to keep in mind the American custom of granting everyone resident in the country the same rights a citizen has..so a Mexican national will be granted the "right to remain silent, the right to an attorney" etc. etc.

  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    Yes.

  • 9 years ago

    Sorry, but what part of this rant is the question that you actually want me to answer?

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  • 9 years ago

    tl;dr

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