What is meant by this statement at Romans 2:11? KJV?

That's the problem with using an archaic version. Here's how it sounds today-

11 For there is no partiality with God.

The language of the KJV is just one of its many faults. The biggest are adding to scripture and altering it to fit the Trinity.

Use an unbiased, proper translation like the New World Translation. It is the true Word of God as it hasn't been altered to conform to any teachings.

This Site Might Help You.

RE:

What is meant by this statement at Romans 2:11? KJV?

King James Version

Romans 2:11

"For there is no respect of persons with God"

Do you think that perhaps it should be translated " for there is no partiality with God" or "there is no favoritism with God"

There is a lovely illustration for this from a novel attributed to Erasmus of Rotterdam. It is about pope Julius II who was a a rather unsavoury, warlike man, and very arrogant and pompous too, according to a number of sources.

In the novel this unpleasant pope arrives at the gates of St peter and a conversation ensues."Well you may be ST Peter, but I was known as THE MOST HOLY father" is the opening line, and this was the way Julius expected to gain entrance to heaven.

You can imagine how the plot develops. In the end he is not let in.

"there is no respect of persons with God"

It does not matter what or who you are. All are welcome to God. But you are an invited guest, not the master of the house.

God does not preserve a special seat for popes or presidents. He looks at what we have done with our lives, not what office we held.

He judges only our actions, without regard to status.

That's exactly what it means. Another good reason for not trying to read the Bible in an outdated language in which many terms had meanings different from their current meanings. Plus the fact that the KJV is a notoriously unreliable translation, with more than 3,500 translational errors.

That statement comes up more than once in the Epistles. It has to do with station in life, and in this case whether a person is Jew or Gentile. It doesn't mean that God doesn't see good or bad, or doesn't know it when dedication is sought after, it means God can have chosen a slave or a rich man, a Gentile or Jew, without favoring one over the other because of that status.

edit: Make sure you know that God favors the person who trusts in him over the person who does not. That fact is made throughout the Bible.

The same phrase is used at Acts 10:34 'respecter of persons kjv' V. 35 in the kjv says "But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness is accepted with him,"

In Modern English these verses say, "At this Peter began to speak, and he said: “Now I truly understand that God is not partial,+ 35 but in every nation the man who fears him and does what is right is acceptable to him."

Today we use the word "Partial" or "Partiality". Truly, God is NOT partial.

This article really shows why this verse is important for real Christians.

http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200002160?q=pa...

Well to accept that you have to have FAITH in that God, correct?

And we see in Jesus that that statement is mainly directed against how the reader is to act toward other people..

Cf St Peter to Cornelius, etc.

Your phrasing is not bad but the point is that we all have conscience and we all are damned or saved on conscience, Conscience --- until you abort it -- is the Voice of God, as even the pagans said.

I think it means one can not impress God; God has no favorites.