How can Atheists say that the bible isn't true when the bible says the bible is true and everything written in the bible is true? LOL?

Allow me to explain how the bible was proven to be inspired in the 3rd century, not the 15TH OR THE 21st., using the facts of history. There is a summary below.

The Bible is initially approached as any other ancient work. It is not, at first, presumed to be inspired. From textual criticism we are able to conclude that we have a text the accuracy of which is more certain than the accuracy of any other ancient work.

Next we take a look at what the Bible, considered merely as a history, tells us, focusing particularly on the New Testament, and more specifically the Gospels.

We examine the account contained therein of Jesus’ life, death, and resurrection. Using what is in the Gospels themselves and what we find in extra-biblical writings from the early centuries,

We then take that and together with what we know of human nature (and what we can otherwise, from natural reason alone, know of divine nature), we conclude that either Jesus was just what he claimed to be—God—or he was crazy.

Further, Christ said he would found a Church. Both the Bible (still taken as merely a historical book, not yet as an inspired one) and other ancient works attest to the fact that Christ established a Church with the rudiments of what we see in the Catholic Church today—papacy, hierarchy, priesthood, sacraments, teaching authority, and, as a consequence of the last, infallibility.

Christ’s Church, to do what he said it would do, had to have the character of doctrinal infallibility.

We have thus taken purely historical material and concluded that a Church exists, namely, the Catholic Church, which is divinely protected against teaching doctrinal error. Now we are at the last premise of the argument.

This Catholic Church tells us the

(2)Bible is inspired, and we can take the Church’s word for it precisely because the (1)Church is infallible.

Only after having been told by a properly constituted authority—

(1)that is, one established by God to assure us of the truth concerning matters of faith—

(2)that the Bible is inspired can we reasonably begin to use it as an inspired book.

This SUMMARY of a summary should clarify:

1) On the first level we argue to the reliability of the Bible insofar as it is history.

2) From that we conclude that an infallible Church was founded.

3) And then we take the word of that infallible Church that the Bible is inspired.

4) This is not a circular argument because the final conclusion (the Bible is inspired) is not simply a restatement of its initial finding (the Bible is historically reliable),

5) and its initial finding (the Bible is historically reliable) is in no way based on the final conclusion (the Bible is inspired).

What I have demonstrated is that without the existence of the Church, we could never know whether the Bible is inspired.

You may be joking but some Christians aren't.

I challenge them to show me where in the text of the Bible is the claim that the words are given by God.

As far as I can remember God chimes in directly a few times in the old testament, and twice in the New, and the rest of the time others are speaking of history and how God created that history.

I renew the challenge here. Where in the Bible does it say the entire collection of books is directed by God?

Because I say so.

Same logic.

Naturally, because since my TV is working god is real.

I know right!

http://www.jhuger.com/kissing-hanks-butt

The bible was written by humans and humans lie and exaggerate

Poe