A question about the nature of God (for Christians)?

None of those terms are Biblical...but, then, neither are these terms:

- Bible

- Biblical

For one thing: the Bible does not have a well-organized theology. For example: all of the tenets of the doctrine of trinity are taught in the Bible, but

- - they are not taught altogether in one place

- - many of the tenets are taught in the Bible by description rather than by plain and clear statement

Naturally a term was devised to describe this doctrine, just as a term has been devised to describe many important Biblical doctrines

- incarnation (Jesus becoming human)

- virgin birth

- omniscience

- omnipresence

etc.

Terms have been devised because it allows us to discuss the topic without having to describe the topic with words every time we refer to it. For example: if every time an author wanted to mention the incarnation he had to write "the event of Jesus becoming a human being through supernatural virgin conception and human birth" - well, for obvious reasons "the incarnation" is preferable to use!

So: **the special terms** are used because

a - they tend to be more specific, more precise in meaning than a description

b - they are very much more concise compared to using a description

And we don't use the Biblical descriptions because they tend to be disorganized, widely scattered (located in several separate Bible passages) and verbose.

Those particular words are, for a start, in English, and the Bible was not written in English. So you need to think about what it is you actually mean when you ask this sort of question.

For instance, the Bible does describe God (using Hebrew and Greek words and phrases) as having power to do anything he wills, and as being good and merciful. I am not aware of any translations into English that choose to use the words "omnipotent" or "benevolent" in those passages, as they aren't very natural terms in English, and maybe don't fit the way the passages are framed. But the words "powerful" and "good" also aren't in the original, because the original was not written in English: the concepts definitely are there.

Something like the Trinity is more complicated, and I would note that even over the course of the Acts of the Apostles and the Epistles we can see that the Apostles' understanding of what had been revealed to them, and how they should react to it, developed and grew. If you think that the Bible was dictated to a scribe by an angel with no surrounding context or knowledge beyond the text, like the Koran, then you will obviously approach this question differently than if you believe the Bible was written over centuries as a witness to pre-existing beliefs.

Thank you for your honest and respectful concerns. I will tell you that if you are that interested you would literally have to refer to the Greek and Latin translations that led to what we can now read. I understand your concerns but are you just having more trouble with comprehending the premise they infer more than the translation? Another words are you have more trouble comprehending the idea that God ALWAYS existed more than the idea that the words used to express that may not have existed? Because, whether these terms were not in existence there had to be the idea that something always existed or at the very least the fact that God provided for us to comprehend that he always existed or else we would not be able to imagine, comprehend or evaluate that .

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The terms you used aren't found in the Bible but the Bible is used to describe them. Like All knowing, Almighty, Alpha and Omega, is the beginning and the end; was, is and is to come, etc. And for the Trinity, the OT is about the Father, the NT is about the Son and the Spirit is in both.

single words describe what God has revealed about Himself in scripture

omniscient, all knowing

omnipresent, all seeing

the Trinity, in the Person of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit

how do we know the nature of God?

We know God through His creation.

St. Paul said: Ever since the creation of the world his invisible nature,

namely, his ...

How to explain this, Is that God's Thoughts and actions are beyond our knowledge.

There is a good little book you can read, along with your Bible on line:

http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1102005167

None of those terms are in the word of God. Not even the term "Rapture" nor "Once Saved Always Saved" nor "The Trinity" nor "Free Will," ...etc... All these terms comes from false teachers and false prophets who willfully use God's name in vain and willfully distort the teachings of christ for ill gotten-gain.

These false teachers and false prophets are breaking one of God's precious laws which is not to add or subtract from the word mentioned in verse Deuteronomy 4:2, Deuteronomy 12:32 and Revelation 22:18-19.

I will explain to you why these terms are contrary to the real terms mentioned in the bible.

I will start out with the term omniscient.

They teach that God is all seeing and all knowing, but according to the verses (such as verses Job 37:16, Psalm 147:5, 1 Samuel 2:3, Isaiah 55:9, Job 28:24, 1 John 3:19-20, Hebrews 4:13, Isaiah 46:9, Matthew 10:30, and Psalm 139:4) that they use to reference their meaning omniscient, none of these verses say exactly that God is all seeing and all knowing. There is not one verse that I put here that says the word omniscient or omnipresent. The bible only says that God looks to the ends of the earth and sees everything that is under heaven. Also, the bible only says, that God is greater than our heart and knows all things. For God the Lord sees every heart and knows every plan. That don't mean that God is present everywhere at the same time. If God was everywhere at once, than why would God need a watchman and a overseer than? Why would there be a throne in heaven for? Did Lord God not say, "Heaven is my throne and the earth is my footstool?" Also, why would there be a need for Jesus to be sitting at the right hand of God in heaven? There's got to be a reason for why God would appointed Lord Jesus, as well as watchman and overseers. Not just that, but why would God appoint leaders and authoritative figures of God too according to verse Hebrews 13:17?

The word benevolent is not even in the Word of God a.k.a. The Holy Bible either. Benevolent is a term that does not meet God's requirements as stated in the bible. God never mentioned that we should serve communities through programs, sponsorships and donations. All these organizations are open for people to see. According to verse Matthew 6:1-4 which speaks about "Giving to the Needy."

Doing good doesn't just mean that we have to give to the needy and to the poor. Doing good also means that we need to obey God's commandments and etc..., according to verse Deuteronomy 12:28 and 1 Peter 3:8-22. For there is no such thing as "Once Saved Always Saved" and there is no such thing as "Free Will" according to these verses: John 15:2, Hebrews 6:1-8, 2 Peter 2:20-22, Hebrews 10:26-31, 1 John 3:4-10, Romans 2:12-13, and Matthew 5:29-30/Matthew 18:6-9/Mark 9:42-50.

Also, the word/term Trinity is not recorded in the Word of God a.k.a. Holy Bible. This is how you rightly divide the word about the difference between God, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit:

First of all, Jesus is one with God in spirit just like a husband is one with his wife in flesh according to verses Matthew 19:4-6 and 1 Corinthians 6-15-17. That is what Jesus means when he says "I and the father are one." I can say the same thing myself about how I and my Father God are one too, but those with a carnal mind/unbelieving heart (such as those Trinity believers) would think that I am claiming to be God just like the Pharisees/Jews (who killed Jesus) accused Jesus of blasphemy because they assume/believe that Jesus was claiming himself to be God according to verses John 5:18 and John 10:33. If you read Jesus response to the Jews in verse John 10:34-38, you will see that Jesus referred to verse Psalms 82:6 in his argument to the Jews, but If you read the whole chapter Psalms 82 for yourself, you will see that God renders judgment among the "gods" mentioning how they defend the unjust; show partiality to the wicked ...etc.... God even mentioned how they understand nothing, but also saying that they will die like mere mortals and that they will fall like every other ruler a.k.a. gods. This chapter sounds a lot like the Jews who were accusing Jesus of claiming himself to be equal to God. Those Jews did not represent God through their works, that is why Jesus mentioned that verse since the chapter speaks volumes about them. However, Jesus did represent God through his works. Jesus said to them, if you really know me, you will know my Father as well. For Jesus revealed God to his people through the "WORKS" that he have been doing according to Jesus argument mentioned in verses John 14:12, John 10:25-33 and John 5:16-18. So it would make sense for God to call his son Jesus "O god" in reference to verse Psalms 82:8. Verse Hebrews 1:8 and Isaiah 9:6 also shows that God calls his Son in his own image/portrayal. Just because God, his father calls Jesus "O god" and etc, doesn't mean the Son of God is his father God. Chapter Psalms 82 just proves that there are many lesser gods such as Satan according to verse 2 Corinthians 4:4, but there is only one true GOD superior to all the other gods.

Jesus says whoever believes that he is the Son of God will have God in them and themselves in God according to verse 1 John 4:15. For Jesus is also in the Father and that the Father is in him according to what Jesus said in verse John 14:10. Just because God is in the believers and in Jesus, doesn't mean that they will all become God the father. It just means that God's spirit/the spirit of God will dwell/live in their temple (a.k.a. their bodies) and will be with them mentioned in verse John 14:17, 1 Corinthians 3:16-17 and 1 Corinthians 6:19-20. Also, the spirit of God will lead his people and teach his people according to verse John 14:26, John 16:13-15 and John 12:11-12. The spirit was giving to them in order that they become holy/pure/cleansed from their sins making them God's legitimate children; being able to conform to the ways/pattern of Jesus and being able to risen from the dead incorruptibly according to these references in the bible: Romans 8:9/Romans 8:1-17, 1 Corinthians 3:16-17, John 14:17, 2 Timothy 1:13-14, and 1 Peter 1:23. This is how the believers will become one with God in spirit, just like Jesus is one with God in spirit. When the believers become one in spirit with God and Christ, they will receive adoption to sonship through Jesus Christ - Ephesians 1:3-14. God's children will become heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ - Romans 8:17.

Most Trinity believers think that the "BREAD OF LIFE" mentioned in verse John 6:25-59 is referring to God coming down from heaven, but if they read the verse in context, they will see that the Bread of Life is referring to Jesus' "FLESH." Why did Jesus mentioned his flesh being the bread of life? Is because he is saying that we must (eat his flesh and drink his blood) which is to believe that he come in the flesh/blood in order to have eternal life. This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God - 1 John 4:2.

The reason why Jesus mentioned the term "manna (a.k.a. bread) coming down from heaven through Moses" is to use his flesh as a depiction of bread, also to explain to us that manna that comes down from Moses can not save us. Only the true bread which is referred to as Christ' flesh and blood that cleanse as of our sins, can only save us. People should not work for their bread (a.k.a. earthly food) that's only temporary, but people should work for their God so that they can uphold the spiritual bread of life that is eternal.

The Bread of Life can be cross referenced to the "WORD OF LIFE" that came down from Heaven according to chapter John 1 and 1 John 1 which speaks the same way about the bread of life, but instead, using the term word of life to describe/depict spiritual matters to us. The incarnation of the Word of Life first started out as being the light of God who brought life and the word into its existence. Than it explains how John witnessed, as well as testified concerning the light of God and the word of life. Than after that, it explains how John was not the light, but that the true light will come after him which is Christ. In the end, it explains how the word became flesh just as Jesus come in the flesh and made his dwelling among the people in which the people have seen his glory who he is the one and only son. The question is, how can the word be God and with God? Is because the word of the Old Testament is a representation of God and then later on, the word of the New Testament became a representation of Christ according to verse Hebrews 1:3. Strangely, people think John 1 in context is about Jesus being God the Father, but if that was true, then there was no need for the bible to mentioned verse John 1:18 or verse 1 John 4:12 and John 6:46.

The bible does not mention anywhere that Jesus is God in its exact wording. The bible only says that Jesus is "Lord" in its exact wording according to verse 2 Corinthians 4:5 and 1 Peter 1:3.

If Jesus is really his father, then Jesus would not be saying in verse John 14:28 that his Father God is greater than himself. Also, Paul would not say that the head of Christ is God according to verse 1 Corinthians 11:3.