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aeiou2
Lv 6
aeiou2 asked in Arts & HumanitiesPhilosophy · 5 years ago

Why might have Plato never traveled to India, if he must have been aware of much knowledge coming from there?

Update:

For example, he mentions Hesiod and his Golden Age (which is analogue to the Hindu Yugas), but does not bother to investigate the source of Hesiod's knowledge himself...

6 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    5 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    One pre-Socratic Greek who did visit India is Scylax: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scylax_of_Caryanda

    Plato probably received some knowledge of Indian thinking via Egypt; however, the reputation of Indian thinking was not particularly awesome.

    Indian thinking becomes more influential in the 3rd century BC, by virtue of the Buddhist emperor Ashoka sending Buddhist teachers to the Hellenistic area to promote the "Law of Piety."

    Related: http://encyclopedia.summitlighthouse.org/index.php...

    "Long Pilgrimage," John Bennett.

  • Athena
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    The 9:12 to new Delhi was already booked the day Plato decided to make a trip.

  • ?
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    Nobody in Plato's era and of his notoriety could have travelled to India and his contemporaries wouldn't have known and written about it. India was known to the Greeks.

  • ?
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    Whenever he planned a visit to India, there was some or the other impediments, hurdle or obstacle. Hence he could not make a visit to India.

    Source(s): own
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  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    Why might anybody not go somewhere? Too poor? Too old? Bad health? Fear? Political reasons? Could be many reasons.

  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    Disneyland New Delhi hadn't opened then.

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