Samantha

I had surgery yesterday and today, my pupils have been dilated since this morning. It's obnoxious because I can't see things close up (it's been over 24 hours since surgery). Is this normal and what's causing it? I know there is an anesthesiologist around here (Pangolin) so I'm hoping my question will be answered well. I will update with any details if you need them. I know I wasn't given succinylcholine because of family hx MH. And I still have a Transderm Scop on but have been very careful not to touch it.

I'm hoping someone around here may actually know something about this other than just assumptions. I'm certainly not a chemistry type of person, so I'm nearly clueless. My questions are regarding the use of acetone nail polish remover in nail polish. I know that it is a terrible idea to add acetone into a bottle of nail polish to thin it. What happens, chemically, when acetone is added to nail polish? I assume that because it's meant to break the polish down to remove it, that it must be doing something similar when added to the bottle. If you're curious about ingredients in nail polish, here are some:

Ethyl Acetate, Butyl Acetate, Nitrocellulose, Adipic Acid/Neopentyl Glycol/Trimellitic Anhydride Copolymer, Isopropyl Alcohol, and others depending on the brand

{http://www.prettyindulgent.com/pages/nail-polish-i... That's a link that includes more ingredients if interested.

It's recommended that nail polish thinner is used, not acetone. Ingredients in thinner are Butyl Acetate and Ethyl Acetate. I'm assuming then, that those two ingredients can evaporate in the nail polish causing it to get thick, hence why you readd them to thin the polish again.

So if someone could tell me what exactly happens when acetone is added to nail polish, or what ingredients specifically the acetone affects and what it does, that would be amazing!

Maybe someone can explain this to me. I have been heavily into the nail polish world for years, with a nauseatingly huge collection (with very few never worn). I'm just dumbfounded when I have friends LOVE the color I'm wearing and when they learn what it is, they're turned off because it's not OPI. I just don't get it!

OPI has been bought out by a major brand and will now be seen in more mainstream stores, and I'm sure you're already seeing it in Target, unlike brands such as China Glaze and Orly, which are commonly compared to OPI. I've also had some TERRIBLE quality OPI polishes. Gargantuan Green Grape, anyone? How about Italian Love Affair? Banana Bandana? Awful.

And OPI doesn't always have the best colors or quality. Wet N Wild hands down has THE best black polish ever, and it's less than $2. OPI can't even compare to that. Seriously. Don't get me wrong, I have some OPI colors I like such as All Rose Lead to Rome. But most are not good quality, and don't have the range of colors or finishes that other companies have.

But seriously, what is this attraction to and snobbishness about OPI? I just don't get it.

Maybe someone can explain this to me. I have been heavily into the nail polish world for years, with a nauseatingly huge collection (with very few never worn). I'm just dumbfounded when I have friends LOVE the color I'm wearing and when they learn what it is, they're turned off because it's not OPI. I just don't get it!

OPI has been bought out by a major brand and will now be seen in more mainstream stores, and I'm sure you're already seeing it in Target, unlike brands such as China Glaze and Orly, which are commonly compared to OPI. I've also had some TERRIBLE quality OPI polishes. Gargantuan Green Grape, anyone? How about Italian Love Affair? Banana Bandana? Awful.

And OPI doesn't always have the best colors or quality. Wet N Wild hands down has THE best black polish ever, and it's less than $2. OPI can't even compare to that. Seriously. Don't get me wrong, I definitely have some OPI colors I like such as... nevermind. The one I was thinking of is "Up All Night", but that's by China Glaze. I'm sure I have a few though...

But seriously, what is this attraction to and snobbishness about OPI? I just don't get it.

It probably came out in the 80s or 90s and I only remember one scene. There was two kids, a boy and girl, who were twins and they were blonde. I remember at some point an adult saying the kids would be "worth more" or something? So maybe someone was trying to sell these kids? It wasn't animated or anything. But at one point, they're with a family and the house is all white and they like things clean and the carpet was white. The boy twin vomited on the carpet and the woman was angry and didn't want them anymore.

I know that description is pretty random, but I remember being fairly young when I saw the movie on TV. Anyone have any idea?

No, she did not die of a heart attack, drug overdose, or anorexia. And although reports said she died of cardiac arrest, everyone dies of cardiac arrest.

Reports have just came back that the primary cause of death was pneumonia. She also had iron-deficiency anemia (which is very common), that also attributed to her death. Reports also said she has been taking hydrocodone with ibuprofen and Prozac as well as OTC cough medicine, however this was not the cause of her death.

Just recently, my boyfriend had his second knee surgery and he is taking Percocet for pain. This got me wondering what I would do if I was in his situation.

Every type of pain medication I can remember taking (besides ibuprofen or acetaminophen) has made me incredibly nauseous and I end up vomiting. I had my wisdom teeth extracted and had either Percocet or Vicodin (I don't remember which). I was constantly dry heaving and nauseous to the point where I just stopped taking them and tried to deal with the pain. (This was not ordinary extraction pain, I had a dry socket at the time because my stitches got dislodged as the result of vomiting.) When I was 18 I had kidney stones and was given IV morphine and ended up vomiting non stop (I know I was given Zofran which obviously didn't help). Most recently, I had ovarian cysts and was given IV dilaudid. This is the experience I remember the most. I was given the dilaudid, which made me nauseous, so they gave me Zofran. It did absolute wonders for my nausea (entirely gone), but I was still vomiting. After my kidney stones, they offered me some sort of pain med (don't remember what) in addition to PO Zofran. Nothing worked and I continued to vomit. After my cysts, I just told them not to bother to write me a script, but they did anyway and I didn't even bother to fill it because at this point it's just not worth taking anything. And it doesn't matter if I take it with milk, on a full stomach, on an empty stomach, with crackers, with a meal, without food.

So my main questions are:

What would you suggest I do if I need pain medication for post-op or some other reason? At this point I feel I'd just rather deal with the pain because the nausea and vomiting is worse. It's just not worth it to try to find something that works and deal with the constant nausea/vomiting.

Why is this happening to me? Do narcotics/opiates hate my body that much?

Just recently, my boyfriend had his second knee surgery and he is taking Percocet for pain. This got me wondering what I would do if I was in his situation.

Every type of pain medication I can remember taking (besides ibuprofen or acetaminophen) has made me incredibly nauseous and I end up vomiting. I had my wisdom teeth extracted and had either Percocet or Vicodin (I don't remember which). I was constantly dry heaving and nauseous to the point where I just stopped taking them and tried to deal with the pain. (This was not ordinary extraction pain, I had a dry socket at the time because my stitches got dislodged as the result of vomiting.) When I was 18 I had kidney stones and was given IV morphine and ended up vomiting non stop (I know I was given Zofran which obviously didn't help). Most recently, I had ovarian cysts and was given IV dilaudid. This is the experience I remember the most. I was given the dilaudid, which made me nauseous, so they gave me Zofran. It did absolute wonders for my nausea (entirely gone), but I was still vomiting. After my kidney stones, they offered me some sort of pain med (don't remember what) in addition to PO Zofran. Nothing worked and I continued to vomit. After my cysts, I just told them not to bother to write me a script, but they did anyway and I didn't even bother to fill it because at this point it's just not worth taking anything. And it doesn't matter if I take it with milk, on a full stomach, on an empty stomach, with crackers, with a meal, without food.

So my main questions are:

What would you suggest I do if I need pain medication for post-op or some other reason? At this point I feel I'd just rather deal with the pain because the nausea and vomiting is worse. It's just not worth it to try to find something that works and deal with the constant nausea/vomiting.

Why is this happening to me? Do narcotics/opiates hate my body that much?

I have a few questions about some answers I've come up with for my bio homework. I'll probably be posting a few others after this as I work on them. I am not looking for you to do my homework for me, just to correct me or lead me in a better direction. I think my brain is just about to explode and I'm probably starting to complicate things WAY too much. At least that how's I feel. These are the questions and answers in question:

1. In humans hemophilia A or B is caused by an X-linked recessive gene. A woman who is a nonbleeder had a father tho was a hemophiliac. She marries a nonbleeder, and they plan to have children. Calculate the probability of hemophilia in the female and male offspring.

I figured this:

Females: none

Males: 1/2

And I got to that conclusion by assuming because the father is normal and the mother is a carrier, the gene is recessive and therefore the girls cannot be affected (one X from dad is normal and dominant, so they cannot have hemophilia even if they receive the gene from their mother). The boys I got 1/2 for because there's a 50:50 chance they'd receive the gene from their mother. Am I correct or at least on the right track?

2. In humans, red-green color blindness is recessive and X-linked, while albinism is recessive and autosomal. What types of children can be produced as the result of marriages between two homozygous parents, a normal-visioned albino woman and a color-blind, normally pigmented man?

My answer:

The children can only be normal visioned and only the females will normally pigmented, while the males will be albino.

My thought process was only the girls will get an X from their dad who is color-blind, but their mom will give them normal-vision, and because that's dominant, all children will have normal vision. For albinism, the girls will receive the normal pigmented dominant gene from their father, so they will not be albino. The boys will only receive the albino X from mom, so they will all be albino. Am I at least close?

Ok, that's all I have for now. I'll post others in a new question as I go along and answer more I may get stuck on.