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Why is this mathematically wrong? ?
No study= Fail
Study = No Fail
No study+study= Fail + No Fail
(No+1) study= (No+1) fail
i.e. Study= fail???
20 Answers
- Jake.Lv 51 decade agoFavorite Answer
This reminds me of an old mathematical joke...
Women = time * money
...and as we all know, "time is money":
Time = Money
...and therefore:
Women = Money * Money = (Money)^2
...and because "Money is the root of all evil":
Money = sqrt(evil)
...therefore:
Women = (sqrt[evil])^2
...and we are forced to conclude that:
Women = Evil
- 1 decade ago
Well to start,
No study+study= Fail + No Fail should be No study+study= No Fail - Fail
Also, you already propose that Study = No Fail. Unless No Fail = Fail, then Study cannot equal both Fail and No Fail at the same time.
- 1 decade ago
All the answers above, and only fishtank is correct.
The problem is in the first two assumptions. Let's see if changing study to apples and fail to oranges helps.
Let No = 2
Therefore
Let
2 apples = 1 orange
and let
2 oranges = 1 apple
Right here there is a problem. You can't have both postulates true unless both apples and oranges equal zero. As general rules for the remainder of the derivation, the postulates don't work.
Also Jake
In Australia, due to the colloquial meaning for root, the line above your punch line is even funnier (although riske)
- alwbsokLv 71 decade ago
That's pretty good. If you were looking for a serious answer (which I know you're not), I would have to say that you haven't defined the operations + and * on any set containing "No", "Study", "Fail", "1", and the multiplicative inverse of No + 1 (which is the only way you could divide it off). You also haven't proved the distributive property on those operations.
;-)
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- bradtkeLv 45 years ago
The 5th step is unlawful. =) we've started with a = b suitable? So once you divide with the aid of (a - b) then, it potential (a - a) or ( b - a ) that's 0. Dividing the two factors with the aid of 0 (0) is indefinite, or you are able to put in the risk of "Infinity", if so, something of the stairs can not shop on with it. Its a mathematical fallacy. :-) Have a effective day!
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Because
Study = No fail cannot also be true for Study = Fail.
You need to assign values for you to actually work that equation properly.
- 1 decade ago
now let see wt happens
no study =fail
study = no fail
now let no study = no pass
nd study =pass
then
study+no study=pass+no pass
take common
study(1+no)=pass(1+no)
now cancel the same turms u will get
study =pass
nd that is true in all senses lollllllll
- 1 decade ago
omg!!!
no + study+study=no + fail+fail
no +2 study=no+2 fail
2 study=2fail
study = fail..
people don't study!
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Because those words have no numeric meaning and have no algebraic treatment.
Also keep in mind you are using logical statements, not mathematics.
Even if you were using mathematics, you havent defined the operations. Real math operations are defined on the set of numbers... and contain no words in their sets. So your new sets containing these words have no math operations defined.
Thirdly... if I wanted to play along... I would posit that "No" has a value of -1, being the opposite and the contrary to "yes". Therefore you are dividing through by zero.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
lol. i've seen this joke. it can be correct.. you can study all you want but still fail in the end.