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Why is this mathematically wrong? ?

No study= Fail

Study = No Fail

No study+study= Fail + No Fail

(No+1) study= (No+1) fail

i.e. Study= fail???

20 Answers

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  • Jake.
    Lv 5
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    This reminds me of an old mathematical joke...

    Women = time * money

    ...and as we all know, "time is money":

    Time = Money

    ...and therefore:

    Women = Money * Money = (Money)^2

    ...and because "Money is the root of all evil":

    Money = sqrt(evil)

    ...therefore:

    Women = (sqrt[evil])^2

    ...and we are forced to conclude that:

    Women = Evil

  • 1 decade ago

    Well to start,

    No study+study= Fail + No Fail should be No study+study= No Fail - Fail

    Also, you already propose that Study = No Fail. Unless No Fail = Fail, then Study cannot equal both Fail and No Fail at the same time.

  • 1 decade ago

    All the answers above, and only fishtank is correct.

    The problem is in the first two assumptions. Let's see if changing study to apples and fail to oranges helps.

    Let No = 2

    Therefore

    Let

    2 apples = 1 orange

    and let

    2 oranges = 1 apple

    Right here there is a problem. You can't have both postulates true unless both apples and oranges equal zero. As general rules for the remainder of the derivation, the postulates don't work.

    Also Jake

    In Australia, due to the colloquial meaning for root, the line above your punch line is even funnier (although riske)

  • 1 decade ago

    That's pretty good. If you were looking for a serious answer (which I know you're not), I would have to say that you haven't defined the operations + and * on any set containing "No", "Study", "Fail", "1", and the multiplicative inverse of No + 1 (which is the only way you could divide it off). You also haven't proved the distributive property on those operations.

    ;-)

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  • 5 years ago

    The 5th step is unlawful. =) we've started with a = b suitable? So once you divide with the aid of (a - b) then, it potential (a - a) or ( b - a ) that's 0. Dividing the two factors with the aid of 0 (0) is indefinite, or you are able to put in the risk of "Infinity", if so, something of the stairs can not shop on with it. Its a mathematical fallacy. :-) Have a effective day!

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Because

    Study = No fail cannot also be true for Study = Fail.

    You need to assign values for you to actually work that equation properly.

  • 1 decade ago

    now let see wt happens

    no study =fail

    study = no fail

    now let no study = no pass

    nd study =pass

    then

    study+no study=pass+no pass

    take common

    study(1+no)=pass(1+no)

    now cancel the same turms u will get

    study =pass

    nd that is true in all senses lollllllll

  • 1 decade ago

    omg!!!

    no + study+study=no + fail+fail

    no +2 study=no+2 fail

    2 study=2fail

    study = fail..

    people don't study!

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Because those words have no numeric meaning and have no algebraic treatment.

    Also keep in mind you are using logical statements, not mathematics.

    Even if you were using mathematics, you havent defined the operations. Real math operations are defined on the set of numbers... and contain no words in their sets. So your new sets containing these words have no math operations defined.

    Thirdly... if I wanted to play along... I would posit that "No" has a value of -1, being the opposite and the contrary to "yes". Therefore you are dividing through by zero.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    lol. i've seen this joke. it can be correct.. you can study all you want but still fail in the end.

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