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Women - How often have you had sex with a man withOUT gaining explicit consent from him?
And do you consider yourself a rapist given that consent wasn't given?
If not (which I presume would be the vast, vast majority) why are men told that if consent is not explicitly given, it's rape?
Why is *only* the woman's consent deemed of importance?
And if you say "well men always want it" doesn't that indicate blatant sexism?
Let's not fall for the myth that an erection is consent - because it's not - it's a biological reaction to stimulation, which is something female rape-victims encounter too...
So come on women... how many of you have ensure you gained the man's consent prior to engaging in sex with him?
Winter - I'm simply asking why ONLY a woman's consent is important, but feminists imply that a man's consent is not necessary - therefore using feminist logic (LOL) all women are rapists.
If you don't like the logic - speak to the sisterhood about it.
22 Answers
- DanielLv 51 decade agoFavorite Answer
You will notice that most of the female posters either assumed consent, or start insulting you. That says a lot to prove your point.
So technically, some of these women are rapists by the feminist definition. They did not ask "Do you want to have sex?", and the man did not explicitly say yes, so that is rape. Just goes to show how ****ed up our laws are regarding consent.
- NinaLv 71 decade ago
This is a very broad question as there are many factors to consider. If you are in a relationship and try to have sex with your partner and they are not receptive but you continue, this may be considered rape. I feel this should be the same for male and female.
I think you make a valid point here saying an erection= consent. "Well, he must be in the mood if has an erection." This is blatant sexism.
I would think consent by either sex would be a receptive partner. Receptive- one who is also engaged in the onset of initiating sex. Which could be any special exchange, such as a loving pat on the backside and a knowing look. Kissing them passionately or something along those lines.
So, if I kiss my man on the neck and he doesn't respond, I am not going to continue. But to truly answer your question, I have never had sex with my man without some sort of response. I would consider a response to be concent.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
I carry around consent forms for both parties at all times. JK, come on, consent is not always verbal, sometimes it's given by actions. When it gets this tangly, I'd rather just not do it.
Now I'm wondering, in the case of threesomes, does everyone need to give verbal consent 2X?
- ?Lv 45 years ago
No, in a typical male sex is about 30% thought process, but they tend to think more on foreplay and just looking at hot girls. Most guys only think sex when an opportunity presents it self for sex... just male sure he's looking at your eyes while you talk
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- 1 decade ago
Ghosh, your reasoning is like an iron grip, unbreakable! I bet you are good in giving Mathematical Proof! Love it!!!!!!!
@CCR: Even with the consent form signed by both parties, a woman could change her mind in the middle or even long after the event took place, then sue the man. The sickness of the misandrist justice system is such that a man STILL has to prove his innocent. The court side with woman, whichever way you turn......I am gonna Vomit think about that.
@JUSTINO: A man must be a freak to have an erection while drunk to the point of unconscious. The girl might have done anything but inserting yours in. Unless you are...superman.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
It can be hard to tell, but if a person is pushing you away, or says "no", that means a "no".
Also, if it is a NEW person, you have to have verbal agreement, in case they feel scared of you and think you might murder them otherwise (they may think its better to have sex with you than be killed if they are really intimidated by you and think yo might kill them).
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If it's your old sex partner then you don't need that type of a verbal "yes", because "welcome gesturers", or at least "not pushing away" gestures, alone are enough.
When someone is pushing you away that's a "no" but i wouldn't proceed to call it "rape" UNLESS:
1) they are a new partner to you (not a "good friend" of yours by any definition) thus they may be too scared to show any significant resistance to your advances,
or
2) they push you away REALLY STRONGLY, and/or say a clear and loud "NOO!!!!!" with an angry intonation, and if they say it, they say like they mean it. These are the ultimate "no"s (even if the people know each other for long), unless it is a consented role-play, of course :)
Source(s): so basically the rule should be- there has to be clear communications. - AurumLv 51 decade ago
Well seeing as I haven't ever had sex I can't say I've gained consent or not.
However, if he did not give consent then yes it is rape, just like if a woman didn't give consent.
- ErinLv 71 decade ago
While it's rare, I have heard from my partners on occasion, "not now" or "I'm not in the mood". That is clearly denial of consent. Yet, if I initiate and he is all gung-ho about it to the point that his responses are equivalent to when he initiates sex, how can that not be consent? Of course, I'm basing this on the assumption that we both are completely substance-free and able to make responsible decisions for ourselves.
- 1 decade ago
Womyn can't rape men because of the inherent power differential between men as a gender and women as a gender. For the same reason, all heterosexual sex is rape (of the woman), even if the individual woman consents because her gender is oppressed.
I hope you understand now.
- Louise CLv 71 decade ago
I cannot remember any man ever actually asking me if he could have sex with me. But they made it pretty clear what theri intentions were, and from my reaction I think they deduced that I was agreeable. I did not normally let myself get into a situation that was likely to lead to sex unless I intended to have sex with a man anyway.