Which version makes more sense?

This one :

Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. KJV

Matthew had a Jewish audience so of course he would mention that some marriages (as Leviticus details in microscopic detail) are not marriages. If you marry your mother ('except for immorality') then it isn't a marriage. And John the Baptist was killed for that little exception 'except for immorality'.

Depends on the audience...

"for this is what had happened. Herod had ordered John to be arrested and had him bound and put in prison because of Herodias, the wife of his brother Philip. Herod had married her and John had told him, «It is not right for you to live with your brother’s wife»"

See the word 'marriage' ? Even the Bible uses it. And then says 'but no'.

NASB, obviously. KJV is in a dead dialect. But that doesn't mean it wasn't also translated with a specific translation philosophy. A different one than the KJV, but still you don't magically get the exact intent of the original authors.

It means if a man divorces his wife to marry another has commited adultery., unless his wife was first unfaithful.

They are both saying the same thing

Except you left off part of the NASB or the NASB left out the part

seeing as I grew up reading old english, and it is the one that has less indiscrepincies in the translations. The KJV makes more sence. but all in all i still take it as a history book, as I do not worship the christian God, but study the religion well.

Either one is fine with me. If I have a question with the KJV or NAS, I can refer to NIV or The Message, etc. Of course, if you go to Bible gateway, you have many more versions to pick from.

The second one is less "muddy."

NASB