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Why does the torah employ two different terms for death?

You can most commonly find the term 'mita' to describe death. But at some instances there is a word 'gevia' (Expiry)...any specific reason for it?

mita >and Moses died there. (Deut. 34:5)

Update:

Jews where are ou come in!

3 Answers

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  • john m
    Lv 6
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    I am going to attempt to answer this however please forgive my ignorance of Judaic beliefs.As someone who has studied Gnosticism I have came across a similar definition of 2 forms of death or dying.

    Christians as you know can be fundamentalist and literal however in their presumption they are ignorant for their bible is complied with the appropriation of the Torah.

    In doing this they have relied on mistranslations and sometimes these have been deliberate.

    Why?

    To confuse and trick those they wish to control with their invention about Jesus and their attempt to validate their religion as coreligionist along side people of the Jewish faith.

    I know they are wrong and so do many Jews.

    Righteousness is something within Judaism which can lead to resurrection.

    I believe these terms relate to this in one respect with the other meaning passing away in body.

    I don't know however I am very interested in Judaic mysticism and it is not the type that involves red string and $100 bottles of water so if you know anything or can point me in the direction of something I'd be very grateful.

    It is such a shame that Christianity has reduced Jesus to a pariah-like figure in Judaism.

    We know so little about this aspect of the man and it would be better if we could learn to reconcile his Jewishness to his humanity and find about him rather than invent a religion about him which has more blood on its hands than any other faith.

  • Hobo
    Lv 6
    1 decade ago

    It uses more than two words but the the two main ones are contextual.

    Maveth, refers to death in general, while "muwth", refers to being killed.

    Another word, 'em, is used in Genesis 24:67, which is translated as his mother's death, but might be more accurately read as his mother's departure.

    I'm almost certain that there is a fourth, but without reading the whole thing again, I cannot be absolute.

    Source(s): Transliterated Hebrew OT.
  • 1 decade ago

    Probably just like us saying, "The patient expired." "The patient died." "He/she has passed on."

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