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Limit without l'hopitals rule?
Limit x->0 arctan(x)/x can anyone solve this algebraically? I can't use l'hopitals rule :(... otherwise it would be easy.
3 Answers
- ecapS trebliHLv 610 years agoFavorite Answer
Using the DEFINITION OF DIFFERENTIATION:
Let f(x) = arctan(x).
lim_(h -->0)) f(h)/h = lim_(h --> 0) (f(h) - f(0))/h = f'(0)
In this case, f'(x) = 1/(1+x^2); f'(0) = 1
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L'Hospital's rule came long after this historically & in your textbook.
It is 100% true that I did not use it.
However, another way is this:
Let y = arctan(x), so x = tan(y)
Then want lim _(y --> 0) y/tan(y)
tan(y)/y = (1/cos y)(sin(y)/y)
cos(y) --> 1 as y --> 0
sin(y)/y --> 1 as y --> 0. This has some sort of geometric proof at the beginning
of the study of differentiating trig functions.
Once again, limit = 1.
- Sean HLv 510 years ago
Well you can simplify a bit. Let theta = arctan(x), and so
1/sqrt(1+x^2) = cos(theta)
or
x = sign(theta) sqrt(1/cos^2(theta) -1),
(sign(theta) = 1 if theta>0, and -1 if theta< 0) and so you can change the limit to
limit theta-> 0 |theta|/sqrt(1/cos^2(theta) -1) = limit theta-> 0 theta*cos(theta)/sin(theta)
This simplifies the problem to calculating
limit theta-> 0 theta/sin(theta),
and maybe you already know that, or know how to do it ...
- oldenburgLv 44 years ago
you ought to use the enlargement of cos x to sparkling up this subject. cos(x) = a million - x^2/2! + x^4/4! - x^6/6! + ... So, a million - cos(x) = x^2/2! - x^4/4! + x^6/6! + ... (a million-cos(x))/x^2 = a million/2! - x^2/4! + x^4/6! + ... restricting x to 0, we get a million/2 using fact the respond