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Christians: How do you interpret the words of the Lord to Moses, No man shall see my face and live.?
I am not a Christian and would like to know how you interpret this spiritually.
Thank you.
6 Answers
- ArmorLv 58 years ago
This is an actual literal verse.
Moses' request for a vision of God was granted, though not fully and with great precautions. Moses' prayer was fully answered on the Mount of Transfiguration centuries later (Luke 9:32).
- ~~Birdy~~Lv 78 years ago
You are talking about Exodus 33
Only Ezekiel got to see the "appearance of the likeness of the glory of God" Eze 1:28 not seeing his true face
In John's Gospel, he says, John 1:17 - 18 For the law was given by Moses, [but] grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [him].
John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou [then], Shew us the Father?
Jesus was the exact image of His Father which no man had seen at any time in ages past.
- sylvia cLv 78 years ago
I dont believe anyone can stand in the face of God and behold His glory, as we are sinfull people, and God and sin cannot walk together, notice Adam and Eve were driven out of God's presence, after they disobeyed His Word and sin and death came into the world. Therefore Christ became our mediator between God and mankind.
- Anonymous8 years ago
God has very low body image
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