I say this verse proves the doctrine of the Trinity is Biblical. What say you?

1 John 5:7 has NOT been added to the Bible. Many Jehovah's Witnesses would want it so but here is some of the history of this verse.

200 AD Tertullian quoted the verse in his Apology, Against Praxeas

250 AD Cyprian of Carthage, wrote, "And again, of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost it is written: "And the three are One" in his On The Lapsed, On the Novatians, (see note for Old Latin)

350 AD Priscillian referred to it [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. xviii, p. 6.]

350 AD Idacius Clarus referred to it [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 62, col. 359.]

350 AD Athanasius referred to it in his De Incarnatione

398 AD Aurelius Augustine used it to defend Trinitarianism in De Trinitate against the heresy of Sabellianism

415 AD Council of Carthage appealed to 1 John 5:7 when debating the Arian belief (Arians didn't believe in the deity of Jesus Christ)

450-530 AD Several orthodox African writers quoted the verse when defending the doctrine of the Trinity against the gainsaying of the Vandals. These writers are:

A) Vigilius Tapensis in "Three Witnesses in Heaven"

B) Victor Vitensis in his Historia persecutionis [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. vii, p. 60.]

C) Fulgentius in "The Three Heavenly Witnesses" [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 65, col. 500.]

500 AD Cassiodorus cited it [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 70, col. 1373.]

550 AD Old Latin ms r has it

550 AD The "Speculum" has it [The Speculum is a treatise that contains some good Old Latin scriptures.]

750 AD Wianburgensis referred to it

800 AD Jerome's Vulgate has it [It was not in Jerome's original Vulgate, but was brought in about 800 AD from good Old Latin manuscripts.]

1000s AD miniscule 635 has it

1150 AD minuscule ms 88 in the margin

1300s AD miniscule 629 has it

157-1400 AD Waldensian (that is, Vaudois) Bibles have the verse

1500 AD ms 61 has the verse

Even Nestle's 26th edition Greek New Testament, based upon the corrupt Alexandrian text, admits that these and other important manuscripts have the verse: 221 v.l.; 2318 Vulgate [Claromontanus]; 629; 61; 88; 429 v.l.; 636 v.l.; 918; l; r.

No, it doesn't because that the latter part of that verse was added to the original manuscripts by translators in order to try and give support to their trinity doctrine.

This is how 1 John 5:7-8 actually reads:

New American Standard Bible

7. For there are three that testify:

8. the Spirit and the water and the blood;

and the three are in agreement.

1 John 5:7-8

New International Version (NIV)

7 For there are three that testify: 8 the Spirit, the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement.

Footnotes:

Late manuscripts of the Vulgate testify in heaven: the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. And there are three that testify on earth: the (not found in any Greek manuscript before the fourteenth century)

Almost every translation except the KJV 's omitted the spurious ( fake) part of 1 John 5:7 and translated it correctly.

The trinity is not Biblical. It was invented by a counsel of men .

Our God is one God, not a triune god.

Jesus is God's Son.

The Holy Spirit is not a god. It is God's power which he uses to help and strengthen his servants, especially in times of trial.

The Bible does not support the trinity doctrine, and in fact the word trinity is not in the Bible. Deuteronomy 6:4 says that "Jehovah our God is one Jehovah." At John 14:28 Jesus says that "The Father is greater than I am." And Acts 2:4,17,33 clearly shows that the holy spirit is a force. It's what God uses to accomplish his will. It is not a person. Nahum 1:2 says that "Jehovah is a God exacting exclusive devotion." He does not share his worship or honor wih anyone. He does not share his worship with his son, Jesus Christ, and cannot share worship with a force. The last parts of 1 John 5:7 and the beginning of verse 8 are not found in any of the early Greek manuscripts and have only been added to bolster the trinity doctrine. In fact, many Catholic and Protestant translations don't even contain those words.

Sorry, if someone is using the KJV translation of 1 John 5:7, the only thing they've proved is their lack of Bible knowledge.

To use the Bible as proof, one must actually quote what the inspired writers wrote, and not 'additions' added to support a teaching not found in the Bible.

The 3 that are one are the blood, the water, and the spirit, which is a wonderful scripture proving that the spirit is not a being, but is the same as blood and water.

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The Trinity is spoken of in the New Testament three times....

1. The Baptism of Jesus, the Dove (symbolizing the Holy Spirit) and the voice of the Father was heard.

2. The Transfiguration where all were heard and seen by the 3 disciples Christ took with Him

3. There is a third example and when I find my Bible downstairs I will post it here.

Yeah that isn't in any of the oldest Greek manuscripts, its a footnote that got added as a verse later called the Johanine comma. You should probably read up on it.

The Trinity is not taught anywhere in the Bible. Christ is God-consciousness. Jesus was a man who was awakened to this.

Did you know that that is a verse tat does not exist in the earliest bibles? The general consensus amongst biblical scholars it that this verse was added.

You can see a 4th century bible on line here:

http://codexsinaiticus.org/en/manuscript.aspx?=Sub... Query&book=55&chapter=5&lid=en&side=r&verse=7&zoomSlider=0

I say this is a quote from the bible.

The bible needs to be proven prior to it being quoted as a 'proof'.

Yes that is one of many.

Look at Genesis 1:26 Then God (singular) said, “Let us make mankind in our (Plural) image,(singular) in our(plural) likeness...

Who walked with Adam in the garden? We know that all of the bible is true and Jesus said that no one has ever seen God except the one who came from God. The bible also says that no man has seen the face of God and lived. So who did Adam walk with in the garden? Who did Abraham prepare a meal for before Sodom was destroyed? Who did Abraham cut a covenant with?

Adam walked in the garden with Jesus.

Who did John the baptist prepare the way for? In the first chapter of John, John the baptist told the pharisees that he was the one spoken of in Isaiah 40:3 who would prepare the way for who? The LORD our God. (Jesus)

Who was speaking in Isaiah 61:1? We know it was Jesus because he quoted the passage about himself in the new testament and said "this day this passage is fulfilled in your hearing" Now read down to isaiah 61:8 when did the speaker change? The speaker has not changed so right there in 61:8 Jesus is calling himself almighty God when he says "For i the LORD love justice."...

In the Beginning, The Word was With GOD ... and THE WORD Was GOD With Us. Let US make man in OUR image, in THE image OF GOD made HE them. The express image and the likeness of God was Messiah.