How well established is the androgen receptor theory for M2F gender dysphoria?

I'm not saying I'm dubious at all, it's just that it would really help me if someone happened to give me a comparison of how strongly supported it is. Is it as reliable as the connection between diabetes and insulin or more like the parenting hypotheses for autism, or what? Can you point me in the direction of citations? All I've found so far is effectively statistically insignificant correlations with CAG repeat sequences. Please answer, this is really personally important to me - my marriage could be at stake.