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How come in some Bibles ...Some verses have ----- in them? Like acts 8:37? Do you know why?

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  • 3 years ago

    1John 5:7 contains what is now called the Johannine Comma, in many older English translations, but it is NOT in any of the earliest manuscripts Somebody wrote it in, who was NOT the God-inspired apostle John, a few hundred years after all of the apostles died.

    Also, Mark chapter 16 ends either in verse 8 or verse 16, depending on the Bible version, If Mark wrote those last verses, we would have the early manuscripts that contained them. Those last verses said that believers could pick up snakes and drink poison. There are some groups who do that, and many of the members have been snakebitten and got sick with poison, even to death.

    If verses that claim to be from the Bible do not appear in the earliest manuscripts, then not only do they not belong in the Bible, but the people who claimed it were LYING, saying that Mark, or someone who lived in the first century, wrote it.

    I believe that the Ethiopian eunuch believed that Jesus Christ is the Son of God, and that Philip told him the truth about the requirement of baptism is that he believe that with all his heart. But if Luke, who was inspired by God to write Acts, did not write that verse, then it should not be there. The inspired principle is here:

    1 Corinthians 4:6, 7

    6 Now, brothers, these things I have applied to myself and A·polʹlos for your good, that through us you may learn the rule: “Do not go beyond the things that are written, so that you may not be puffed up with pride, favoring one against the other. 7 For who makes you different from another? Indeed, what do you have that you did not receive? If, in fact, you did receive it, why do you boast as though you did not receive it?

  • Anonymous
    3 years ago

    MINE DOES NOT.....

  • 3 years ago

    I don't know. My Bible doesn't have any.

    Source(s): Greek Orthodox Christian
  • 3 years ago

    hun......hat the meaning of --------?

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  • yesmar
    Lv 7
    3 years ago

    Because that verse is in some ancient manuscripts and not in others. It is felt by editors that it is not a genuine part of the passage, but you can find it in the footnotes. That way you can make your own determination of it's worthiness.

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