Why did Moses change Hosea name to Joshua?

I’m reading the books of Eusebius and Eusebius talks about how the name really isn’t Joshua but Jesus which should read Jesus son of Nun. So if Eusebius is correct why is the name of Jesus not translated as Jesus and the book of Joshua called the book of Jesus. Eusebius is giving divine revelation so the name rendering should either be Jesus all the way through or Jesus. In fact, in Zechariah 6:11 It should also be a consistent with Joshua and the name Jesus being one and the same not different by modern translation. Zechariah 6:11 Take the silver and gold and make a crown and set it on the head of the high priest Joshua (Jesus) son of Jehozadek.