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Is the Catholic feb 2nd "Feast of the Purification of Mary" a waste of a "Holy Day"?
Since it's Catholic dogma is that she NEVER SINNED, logic would dictate that she never needed purification from ANYTHING.
Yes, I know it's just a rumour, but still, it's THEIR rumour, and they should be consistent about who's Immaculate and Pure, and whose soul needs a bit of a scrub up.
11 Answers
- PaulLv 72 months ago
The "Purification" of Mary MEANS that she was born without any moral imperfection. She was purified at the moment of her own conception. Therefore the "two things" you are attempting to "compare" are exactly the same thing.
- Doug CatholicLv 72 months ago
At the time of Mary's "Purification" the Old Testament Law was still in effect and it required all Jewish women who recently had a child to appear and offer sacrifice, as specified. She did, so as to properly obey the letter of the law. BTW: For reasons which should be obvious, it's never wise to show disrespect to the Mother of God.
- Anonymous2 months ago
Cardinal Newman freely admitted in his book that all catholic holy days are based upon pagan beliefs and practices.
- capitalgentlemanLv 72 months ago
Mary was a Jewish lady, and followed Jewish customs, and laws - including the "Purification" ceremony after having given birth. Catholics (and, some other Christians) just acknowledge this.
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- UserLv 72 months ago
"Purification" of Mary
in this case
refers to the ***ritual Jewish purification*** of Mary.
I.e. it refers to a Jewish ritual
just as does the alternate terminology
"Feast of the Presentation of Jesus Christ"
(again: referring to a Jewish religious ritual).
Me: Fundamentalist Christian
- Anonymous2 months ago
Nobody's twisting your arm to join the club, so why don't you just mind your own business.
- 2 months ago
DOH!........
Shadowfire, nothing was stolen, you do not own the calendar. There are only 365 days...you have to share
- Anonymous2 months ago
Yes, they should be consistent.
But the Bible is not consistent so they think its okay.