Which version makes more sense?

Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. KJV

Mat 19:9 "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery." NASB

Juice0022010-02-19T14:44:00Z

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This one :

Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. KJV

Anonymous2010-02-19T13:04:09Z

Matthew had a Jewish audience so of course he would mention that some marriages (as Leviticus details in microscopic detail) are not marriages. If you marry your mother ('except for immorality') then it isn't a marriage. And John the Baptist was killed for that little exception 'except for immorality'.

Depends on the audience...

"for this is what had happened. Herod had ordered John to be arrested and had him bound and put in prison because of Herodias, the wife of his brother Philip. Herod had married her and John had told him, «It is not right for you to live with your brother’s wife»"

See the word 'marriage' ? Even the Bible uses it. And then says 'but no'.

Corey2010-02-19T13:04:16Z

NASB, obviously. KJV is in a dead dialect. But that doesn't mean it wasn't also translated with a specific translation philosophy. A different one than the KJV, but still you don't magically get the exact intent of the original authors.

taffygirl2010-02-19T13:03:39Z

It means if a man divorces his wife to marry another has commited adultery., unless his wife was first unfaithful.

Anonymous2010-02-19T13:01:17Z

They are both saying the same thing

Except you left off part of the NASB or the NASB left out the part

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