Does JESUS not clearly define what the definition of marriage is in these verses?

(Matthew 19:3-9) And Pharisees came up to him, intent on tempting him and saying: “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife on every sort of ground?” 4 In reply he said: “Did YOU not read that he who created them from [the] beginning made them male and female 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh’? 6 So that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has yoked together let no man put apart.” 7 They said to him: “Why, then, did Moses prescribe giving a certificate of dismissal and divorcing her?” 8 He said to them: “Moses, out of regard for YOUR hardheartedness, made the concession to YOU of divorcing YOUR wives, but such has not been the case from [the] beginning. 9 I say to YOU that whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of fornication, and marries another commits adultery.”

?2011-10-01T13:27:01Z

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It sounds like it to me, but this era's society goes by human law, which is not based on God's law.

Rick2011-10-01T13:55:52Z

No, it is not clear at all unless you put it in context. At the time there was a debate about what some uncleanness in Deut. 24:1-4 meant one group said a man could divorce his wife for anything he did not like about her. The other group held that the only time a man could choose to divorce his wife is if he found out that she was not a virgin when he married her. In this light it is clear that Jesus taught that fraud was grounds for divorce but that you was hard hearted to do it.

There is no exception for a spouse in first Corinthians 5 you are commanded to drive out the wicked from among you, drive out and divorce come from the same root word and carry the same meaning.

Anonymous2016-05-16T02:09:31Z

You are using the wrong verse, the Sura mentioned marriage with non Muslims is Al-Maeda no 5 verse 5 state that Muslim men are allowed to marry Christian and Jew women. But it did not say Muslim women can do the same. In that case you can't work your brain and try to Create something which Allah did not allow. How would the Muslim woman inherit her non Muslim husband or any of her non Muslim children when they die? how could she cook pork for her husband and serve wine for him? How could she ask for divorce if Christianity doesn't allow that? better in that case she convert to her husbands religion while this is against the main essence of Islam

Monkey Daddy2011-10-01T13:57:23Z

Well, I think that just means christians can't get divorced (with one exception), or they're commuting adultery.

But this ignores several facts:
Christians get divorced at the same rate as non-christians.
If fornication is the the only reason christians can get divorced, then "hat God has yoked together let no man put apart." is really, really, really silly. God is just... weak.

Doesn't sound like an all-knowing god wrote this, sounds like someone SAYING god said it.

Anonymous2011-10-01T13:53:29Z

Yeah ok...so where is Jesus these days?

Tell him to stop by my house tomorrow and I will discuss it with him.

Oh but first maybe I should check with Muhammid and Allah to make sure they both agree with Jesus.

Look...Jesus is dead. MORE people alive today who could care less what a dead man who might have lived 2000 years ago has to say about anything.

Gay Marriage is ACCEPTABLE to a MAJORITY of Americans...

Gays are now openly serving in the Military and will do so now and forever more.

It may take awhile but in the end christians social agenda ALWAYS LOSES!!!

You have lost this fight...oh the HATE still burns in you and you will continue try to find ways to turn back the clock..

Next up from the christian crazies upset because nobody listens to Jesus anymore?

Bombs and snipers at gay weddings!!!

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