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Consensual sex? California Law.....?
this question is for people who know california law, so please don't try to answer based on what you THINK....rather I need an answer from someone/anyone who knows criminal law in California.
suppose a woman is living in a domestic relationship with a guy who does drugs, and is on occasion physically abusive when they argue....which is generally about his drug abuse. one night, while away from home and in a hotel room, the couple gets into yet an argument (because he's on meth), which ends with him physically battering her. the next day, he wants her to have sex with him, and she tells him she does not want to have sex with him PERIOD. he then explains that he will not take her home, will not let her leave until she has sex with him, and she reiterates that she does not want sex. he continues to refuse to take her home (so she can go to work later that day) until she complies. she finally gives in, though she is crying and does not want to have sex. she realizes he has given her no option if she wants to go home for work and not jeopardize her employment, so she gives in to his demands for sex.
my question is this: did the man commit a crime, and what is the statute of limitations on a crime like this if it is in fact a crime.
this is for a school project, so please give answers as pertain to california law.
i guess what i'm having a problem understanding is the consensual aspect. the woman made it clear she DID NOT want sex. she only had sex because he coerced her with of fear of reprisal (something she'd come to expect, due to his abusive nature) and out of fear that she would lose her job due to "no show" doesn't this make it non consensual, therefore rape?
more details. There is also the couple's infant child in the room and the man will not let the woman pick up a phone to call ANYONE (police or friend) and as past experience would leave her to believe, he would not let her go anywhere until she had given him what he wanted....no taking the bus, no calling a cab. For those of you who give negative answers, please refrain. i don't need answers from people who watch law and order, or from people who only see a YATS....young and totally stupid person. this is a real scenario my professor asked of us.
24 Answers
- 5 years ago
Considering she is still pregnant, there is still no proof until she gives birth. They would not bother to go back to when she was 15 as the age of consent in California is 18, meaning she will be a minor for sexual activity until she reaches the age of 18. This also means there is no way she could have consented to anything until she is over 18. Get it, under 18 CANNOT give consent in California.
- Seán OLv 51 decade ago
The key here is did he prevent her from leaving the hotel? Her lack of option is subjective and potentially in terms of a complaint with hindsight. Her crying is irrelevant. Her going to work the next day is irrelevant. The history of abuse is irrelevant to a rape allegation but is a crime in its own right. His drug abuse is irrelevant to the rape complaint.
The concept of consent lies in the fact that their was no direct threat - i.e. she would not have been subject to violence or a restriction of her freedom if she had not consented.
As the focus of the question appears to be about a rape charge, there was no crime so the concept of statute of limitations does not apply.
- 1 decade ago
What is the Statute of Limitations for rape in California?
The statute of limitations in California is based on the potential sentence of the crime, for example, crimes punishable by the death penalty have no statute of limitations. Because of this, it is very difficult to accurately predict the statute of limitations for a particular survivor since it depends upon which crimes the prosecutor would charge in their case. The only way to accurately tell whether or not a statute has expired is to report the crime. There is no statute of limitation for reporting a crime to the police, so a survivor may do so at any time. Even if the statute has expired, a survivor may be contacted if their case is connected to other subsequent cases.
Source(s): http://www.calcasa.org/53.0.html - George PLv 61 decade ago
The physical abuse would be a violation. I am not sure the statute of limitations on that, but if there aren't any bruises or they all healed up, its hard to prove.
Him being on Meth isn't a crime, possession is a crime, but having it in your system is not, however, they could cite him for public nuisance.
As far as the sex, there is no crime, because she consented. She might not have wanted to at first, and if he would have had sex with her when she said no, then it would be rape, however, after harassment from him, she agreed to the act.
BTW, she had another option, she could have called a friend for a ride, or she could have called a cab for a ride. She could have also started to walk. So she had options.
The only way it could be rape is if she said no. But, she gave in to him. I understand what you are saying, but it would be considered rape. He didn't force himself onto her. She agreed to it, even if its under duress, she still agreed.
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- jurydocLv 71 decade ago
Direct from CA penal code 261 and 262
Are they married? CA law distinguishes rape of a spouse from NON-spouses:
Rape is an act of sexual intercourse accomplished with a
person not the spouse of the perpetrator. . .
IF they are not married, then this subsection would cover the circumstances you describe:
Where it is accomplished against a person's will by means of
force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful
bodily injury on the person or another.
or possibly:
Where the act is accomplished against the victim's will by
threatening to retaliate in the future against the victim or any
other person, and there is a reasonable possibility that the
perpetrator will execute the threat. As used in this paragraph,
"threatening to retaliate" means a threat to kidnap or falsely
imprison, or to inflict extreme pain, serious bodily injury, or
death.
Further defining info:
As used in this section, "duress" means a direct or implied
threat of force, violence, danger, or retribution sufficient to
coerce a reasonable person of ordinary susceptibilities to perform an
act which otherwise would not have been performed, or acquiesce in
an act to which one otherwise would not have submitted. The total
circumstances, including the age of the victim, and his or her
relationship to the defendant, are factors to consider in appraising
the existence of duress.
AND
In prosecutions under Section 261, 262, 286, 288a, or 289,
in which consent is at issue, "consent" shall be defined to mean
positive cooperation in act or attitude pursuant to an exercise of
free will. The person must act freely and voluntarily and have
knowledge of the nature of the act or transaction involved.
IF they were married, he would be guilty of :
Rape of a person who is the spouse of the perpetrator is
an act of sexual intercourse accomplished under any of the following
circumstances:
(1) Where it is accomplished against a person's will by means of
force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful
bodily injury on the person or another.
The definitions of duress are identical.
Source(s): When in doubt, ALWAYS go to the statute books! - TOASTEELv 61 decade ago
could she leave the hotel room and walk? If not, then that is unlawful imprisonment.
If she could not leave (no way out) until she gave in to sex, then yes, that is a crime in every states. California would consider it unlawful imprisonment and criminal sexual conduct.
If she could leave (just without a ride home), then it is not imprisonment, but it is sexual harrassment.
I will look this up and if I find anything else, I will get back to you
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Yes, he committed several crimes, including kidnapping and rape. The other posters seem to have missed the point that he refused to let her leave the room; that's kidnapping. Her only way out was to allow sex. Since the sex was enforced, it is rape.
Federal statutes apply here, as well as state law.
- 1 decade ago
Yes, he did break the law! A good defense attorney would argue he didn't because she finally gave in. But in actuality he did in fact break the law by making her have sex with him even though she didn't want it. The limitations differ in states i know that in Ny (from watching Law and Order) that it is 5 years. I'm betting its around that time
i dont apprecaite being told off because i watch law and order!! F U C K you lady!!
- BO#44Lv 61 decade ago
I highly doubt this is for a school project, but he didn't break the law by refusing to take her home, and hence to work, he knew she needed to get there and would eventually give in. Even meth addicts require some lovin!!!! She had the option to call a cab, call a friend, CALL THE POLICE, they are there to protect and SERVE. You say she had no options, I say she had at least 3.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
School project...right, pretty specific for a hypothetical situation. Sounds like this guy's a real winner. I say look under the bed, or anywhere else you might have left your brain, and leave him. Or are your CD's in his truck?