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About the Immaculate Conception-?

God is said to have arranged for Mary's conception to be immaculate, "original sin" not being passed down to her, so that his son Jesus could have a pure mother.

Hypothetically, if God could do that, couldn't he have just done it for one entire generation? Then we would all be free of "original sin", and he wouldn't have had to kill his own son, nor to doom billions to hell.

Am I misinterpreting the idea of Immaculate Conception?

Update:

My question was hypothetical. It matters not whether immaculate conception is real. My question is, is this the way Catholic doctrine interprets it. If not, how do they interpret it. If so, is there any reason God could not have done what I suggested. So far, none of the replies have been answers to the question I asked.

9 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    The Word of God makes it clear that Mary regarded God as her Saviour and the only One able to forgive her her sins.

    Luke 1:46 And Mary said: "My soul glorifies the Lord

    Luke 1:47 and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior,

    Luke 1:48 for he has been mindful of the humble state of his servant. From now on all generations will call me blessed,

    Luke 1:49 for the Mighty One has done great things for me- holy is his name.

    The belief that Mary was without sin was implemented by the Catholic church in a vain attempt to explain to it's adherents how Christ could be sinless.

    This would also then have to mean that Mary's parents were themselves without sin and so on.

    Jesus Christ ALONE has crushed the serpent's head.

    NOT Mary. Not in the slightest part.

    To teach otherwise is blatantly anti Biblical.

  • 1 decade ago

    I consider myself religious. But I don't go to church often, because a lot of the beliefs of the church can be proved false by doing a little research.

    Do i think God is all powerful? Yes, I do. Do I think God has it in his ability to impregnate a woman? Yes. Do i think Jesus was the Son of God? Sure.

    But, you can actually find this if you look hard enough. You hit alittle bit of the truth in your question.

    They said that Jesus was without sin. They said that, if Jesus was sinless, he could not have been born of a sinful woman. Therefore, Mary must have been a virgin.

    Yes. That's it. That's the logic behind it.

    The biggest rule of the Christian bible is we're all sinners, and the only way for us to reach salvation is through Jesus Christ. Isn't it odd, then, that just out of nowhere, there's a woman who's completely sinless?

    I'm not saying that mary is any less holy, or Jesus any less divine. I'm open to the idea that the Immaculate Conception could have happened. But, I don't think it happened.

    So, no. You're not misinterpreting it.

  • 1 decade ago

    No, you are using your brain and that is a good thing. But if we were all free of original sin, the churches would be out of business because then they could not make people feel guilty and come to them for help. They could not preach to us how to live our lives and tell us what to do (like Big Brother watching you). And since they are in the business of telling people how to live their lives, they had to come up with irrational stories like the"immaculate conception." Now you know, hope this helps.

    Source(s): I have lived long enough on this planet, under the rule of religion and the Bible, to know what they are up to. They tried to pull the wool over our eyes, but not anymore. Read Richard Dawkins' book "The God Delusion" and you too will see the light.
  • 1 decade ago

    There is no Scriptural support for the notion that Mary was conceived by "immaculate conception;" however, this is a moot point, because the Roman Catholic understanding of "original sin" is incorrect -- we are NOT born with sin residing within us, we are born with the INCLINATION to sin. There's a difference.

    In order for Yeshua to have been "fully Human" as virtually all Christians believe, He would have had to have this "sin nature." If He had been born without it, He could not have "conquered the world" by refusing to sin. No, instead He was born with the inclination to sin -- as was His mother -- but He turned away from sin.

    And as for Mary's supposed "sinlessness," if she was sinless, then why did she admit in her "magnificat" that she needed a savior?

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  • 1 decade ago

    I wouldn't say that he killed his only son. He gave his only son. Creating everyone perfect is not God's world or plan. No one can completely understand what God's plan is but i'm pretty sure it's not to make everyone perfect. But i guess that would solve everything though. But then there's no point to the world really. He also doesn't doom people to hell. People doom themselves. But creating everyone without sin would defeat the purpose of needing a savior. It takes away the choice. Our choice to Love God. God Loves the world so much that he gave his only son.

  • 1 decade ago

    not true the body jesus had was tempted to sin just like ours was.

    Immaculate Conception is saying Mary was born with our original sin making her pure and holy like God.

    Of course the bible does not teach that.

    Mary was a sinner just like every other human

  • Yes you are.

    Original sin occurred EONS ago in the 1st earth when Lucifer sinned against God. THAT.!! is the original sin.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    We already can escape original sin, it is Catholic sacrament of Baptism, as believed in the Catholic teachings and beliefs.

    The Immaculate Conception of Mary stands out, she was to give birth to the promised Messiah. It was also to crush the serpent, Lucifer, who is the devil and Satan.

  • A
    Lv 4
    1 decade ago

    Too bad today they don't have immaculate CONTRACEPTION....

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