montez a

I'm legitimately curious why people ask JW's questions on this board and after getting their questions answered by multiple JW's, choose as "best answer" the response of a person who ISN'T a JW and opposes them?

To me that's like asking a mathematician a math question and only listening to the responses of people who flunked out of math and hate it. Makes ZERO sense to me.

The bible clearly states that there is ONE God and Father of everyone.

1 Corinthians 8:6 "..there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came.."

Hebrews 1:1-2 Long ago God spoke many times and in many ways to our ancestors through the prophets. 2 And now in these final days, he has spoken to us through his Son. God promised everything to the Son as an inheritance, and through the Son he created the universe.

And yet...

Hebrews 2:11 "So now Jesus and the ones he makes holy have the same Father..."

If Jesus HAS a Father (GOD) how can he BE his Father?

1 Corinthians 15:28 "Then, when all things are under his authority, the Son will put himself under God’s authority, so that God, who gave his Son authority over all things, will be utterly supreme over everything everywhere."

I'm just saying that I "get it". Especially when you only have stuff like this to go on. These are actual answers to a legit question I posted about Hebrews 5:4-5 where Jesus was chosen by GOD but didn't choose himself. You have to read it.

"The Son did not choose the Son, but the Father. The Son willingly followed the Father's choice. They are both one God, but the Father is not the Son, and the Son is not the Father."

"You are educated beyond your intelligence.......

For those who believe, no explanation is necessary.

For those who do not believe, no explanation is possible.."

"One Hebrews 7 makes a subtle difference between Godhead in person the eternal creator and the son of man in the David's line of priesthood ; only as a Priest forever after the order of Melchisedek. In other words to be a Priest forever after the order of Melchisedek means you can't be an immortal (without Father without Mother without descent ) like Godhead in person was is and shall be , the sole immortal . Godhead in person IS Melchisedek. Jesus is a Priest forever AFTER the order of Melchisedek."

"Simply complex."

Everyone usually agrees that Jesus is a High Priest correct? Yet Hebrews 5:4-5 says this about the position of High Priest and Jesus.

"And no one can become a high priest simply because he wants such an honor. He must be called by God for this work, just as Aaron was. 5 That is why Christ did not honor himself by assuming he could become High Priest. No, he was chosen by God,..."

How can Jesus, who is himself GOD, "not honor himself" with the position of High Priest and still be "chosen" by Himself?

Verse 8-10 says in part "Son though he was, he learned obedience from what he suffered... and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek."

If the Father is also the Son and co-equal yet still ONE and the same how can Jesus not choose himself but still be chosen by GOD?

He regularly taught that he was "sent" from GOD right? Yet check this out.

John 13:16, 20 "I tell you the truth, slaves are not greater than their master. Nor is the messenger more important than the one who sends the message. I tell you the truth, anyone who welcomes my messenger is welcoming me, and anyone who welcomes me is welcoming the Father who sent me."

John 15:10 "When you obey my commandments, you remain in my love, just as I obey my Father’s commandments and remain in his love."

Comparing these verses Jesus says that he himself was sent by One that is greater than he is and that he obeys that One. How could his illustration be accurate and yet he still be a "co-equal" with the Father?

Compare 1 Corinthians 11:3

"But there is one thing I want you to know: The head of every man is Christ, the head of woman is man, and the head of Christ is God."

How is it possible for his illustrations to be accurate if he is GOD also?

I've been studying the council of nicea and it's creeds and comparing it to what the bible says would happen to the congregation.

In these 2 verses is speaks of false teachers inside the congregation misleading and abusing it for personal gain.

2 Peter 2:1-3 "...false teachers will come among you. They will introduce destructive opinions and deny the master who bought them, bringing quick destruction on themselves. 2 Many will follow them in their unrestrained immorality, and because of these false teachers the way of truth will be slandered. 3 In their greed they will take advantage of you with lies."

Acts 20:30 "Some of your own people will distort the word in order to lure followers after them."

We see today there are false churches that are out for money, support wars, allow premarital sex, etc. clearly not biblical views but some have apostolic lineage.

Why would nicean creeds prove God's approval when the bible says that there would be false teachers in among them, some from the true congregation, twisting the scriptures for their own benefit? How would apostolic succession or popular vote at Nicea prove or support anything?

Would any of the 1st century congregation approved of meeting together with pharisees, saducees, and other religious groups to decide their doctrine with a secular ruler as moderator?

Why is so much weight given to their rulings when many invited bishops didn't even attend?

I ask a valid question and present it in a logical manner and of all of the answers I received from the Christians I asked....I got 1 actual answer (JW), a couple commentaries, and a lot of non-answers from the rest.

See for yourself.

ttp://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AkKLwwskQV8fqKLR_4heRJYAAAAA;_ylv=3?qid=20120725130701AAUqmji

Not trying to be combative or offend anyone but that's depressing.

Aren't you supposed to understand the bible and the trinity more than anybody since your LIFE depends on it?

John 17:3 This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.

Matthew 13:11 He replied, “Because the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them."

Luke 24:45 Then he opened their minds so they could understand the Scriptures.

As far I I know only Mormons and Jehovah's Witnesses make the claim to understand the bible. Are there any others?

(Please don't say it's a "mystery" because even that was revealed to the 1st century Christians and they understood it too.

Ephesians 3:3-5 God himself revealed his mysterious plan to me. 4 As you read what I have written, you will understand my insight into this plan regarding Christ. 5 God did not reveal it to previous generations, but now by his Spirit he has revealed it to his holy apostles and prophets.)

If you don't have a valid answer please don't waste my time with nonsense.

I know some use Jehovah in the OT and not the NT. Are there any that use it in both OT and NT other than the NWT?

If your Christian denomination looks like this please name if for me.

They respect the bible as GOD’s word- 2 Timothy 3:16

All members believe the same teachings- Galatians 1:8-9

There are no divisions- 1 Corinthians 1:10

They are identified by love- John 13:35

They understand the “mystery” of GOD- Colossians 1:9b-10, 25-26

They know GOD’s will and teach it to others- Matthew 13:11 and 28:19-20a

They understand Jesus and the Father’s relationship- Matthew 11:27b

They understand the scriptures regarding Jesus- Luke 24:44-45

They are persecuted- Acts 28:22

They are found world wide- Matthew 24:14

They are taken to court due to their faith- Matthew 10:18

Why isn't it called the King James Translation?

Why is it that when I come to this board the questions don't even seem like the people asking them care anymore.

I'm considering retiring at level 3.

From speaking with a few people that believe in it I am starting to think that there are 2 different versions.

The first is that there is 1 GOD in heaven that sits on 1 throne and he made himself a body, sacrificed it, and went to heaven where he merged back with himself. He is also Holy spirit of course.

The second is stated as Jesus is GOD but is literally not the Father who is GOD, or HOLY ghost. That there is a separation between them supported by the conversations they have together but only together are they GOD therefore still 1 GOD.

That's the impression I get but I'm not sure if that's entirely accurate.

No I don't believe in the doctrine myself but I do want to be accurately informed.

GOD, Jesus, and spirit annointed christians are presented in the bible as a family with a Father, firstborn Son, and adopted brothers and sisters.

Romans 8:29 CEB

We know this because God knew them in advance, and he decided in advance that they would be conformed to the image of his Son. That way his Son would be the first of many brothers and sisters.

Hebrews 2:11-14

So now Jesus and the ones he makes holy have the same Father. That is why Jesus is not ashamed to call them his brothers and sisters. 12 For he said to God,

“I will proclaim your name to my brothers and sisters.

I will praise you among your assembled people.”

13 He also said,

“I will put my trust in him,”

that is, “I and the children God has given me.”

14 Because God’s children are human beings—made of flesh and blood—the Son also became flesh and blood.

Or does it make sense to you that GOD would talk to himself and use the family illustration to confuse everybody?

I've noticed that many believe that religious faith is blind without evidence of any sort. That may be true for some practicing in a particular religion. However, from a biblical standpoint the faith described is not without evidence nor is it blind.

Hebrews 11:1

Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the EVIDENCE of things not seen.

The faith described in the bible is similar to a farmer that plants a seed with the faith or confidence that later it will grow. We have faith that the sun will rise tomorrow even though it hasn't happened.

Scripturally when Jesus walked the earth he performed many miracles and signs as proofs that he was the promised messiah or christ. He didn't just tell others to take his word for it only.

John 5:36 "...the very works that I am doing, bear witness about me that the Father has sent me."

I believe in the bible because of the scientific accuracies and proofs the book itself contains. Such as this.

Isaiah 40:22

"...who stretches out the heavens like a curtain, and spreads them like a tent..."

"Three U.S.-born scientists won the Nobel Prize in physics Tuesday for discovering that the universe is expanding at an accelerating pace, a stunning revelation..."

Read more: http://www.foxnews.com/scitech/2011/10/04/trio-ame...

If a person of any christian faith can't provide proof of any sort then it is not a bible based faith they are practicing or preaching to you.